Question 1:

In the formation of N₂⁺ from N₂, the electron is removed from

1)  a p * orbital

2)  a s * orbital

3)  a p orbital

4)  a s orbital

Question 2:

A sample of carbon is placed in a rigid 1.50 L flask. Dinitrogen monoxide is added and the flask heated to 800C. When the system reached equilibrium the partial pressure of the carbon dioxide is found to be 0.030 atm and the partial pressure of the dinitrogen monoxide to be 1.48 atm. What is the partial pressure of nitrogen in the mixture.

1)  0.060 atm
2)  0.050 atm
3)  0.030 atm
4)  0.080 atm

Question 3:

PCl₅ (g) at an initial pressure of 1 atm is placed in a closed vessel containing chlorine at a pressure of 0.2 atm. If PCl₅ dissociates to the extent of 20%, then match the following:

1)  A – r; B – s; C – s; D – p
2)  A – q; B – s; C – r; D – p
3)  A – q; B – s; C – p; D – r
4)  A – p; B – s; C – q; D – r

Question 4:

A certain laser transition emits 6.37×10¹⁵ quanta per second per square metre. Calculate the power output in joule per square metre per second. Given λ = 632.8 nm.

1) $$3.14\times 10^{-19}Jm^{-2}$$ $$sec^{-1}$$
2) $$4\times 10^{-3}Jm^{-2}$$ $$sec^{-1}$$
3) $$2\times 10^{-3}Jm^{-2}$$ $$sec^{-1}$$
4) $$4.03\times 10^{9}Jm^{-2}$$ $$sec^{-1}$$

Question 5:

Acetyl bromide reacts with excess of CH₃MgI followed by treatment with a saturated solution of NH₄Cl gives:

1) acetone
2) acetamide
3) 2-Methyl-2-propanone
4) acetyl iodide

Question 6:

Consider the following statements,. the d-orbitals have
(i) four lobes and two nodes
(ii) four lobes and one node
(iii)same sign in opposite lobs
(iv)opposite sign in the opposite lobs

1) i alone
2) i and iii
3) ii and iii
4) i and iv

Question 7:

Ether is formed when alkyl halide is treated with sodium alkoxide. This method is known as:

1) Hoffmann reaction
2) Wurtz synthesis
3) Kolbe's reaction
4) Williamson synthesis

Question 8:

Assertion

Phenol reacts with CH₃I in presence of NaOH to form methoxybenzene.

Reason

Phenoxide is better nucleophile than phenol.

1) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation for Assertion
2) Both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not the correct explanation for Assertion
3) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect
4) Both Assertion and Reason are incorrect

Question 9:

HI cannot be prepared by the action of conc. H₂SO₄ on KI because H₂SO₄  is _____?

1) oxidising agent
2) reducing agent
3) A and B 
4) none

Question 10:

In Holmes signal contains CaC2 along with :

1) CaCl₂
2) Ca₃P₂
3) Ca₃N₂ 
4) CaCO₃

Question 11:

KClO₃ on heating decomposes  into KCl and O₂. If some MnO₂  is added, the reaction goes much faster because :

1) MnO₂ decomposes to give oxygen
2) MnO₂ acts as a catalyst
3) better contact is provided by MnO₂
4) MnO₂ provides heat by reacting

Question 12:

Addition of bromine to trans-but-2-ene is

1) syn-addition

2) anti-addition

3) both

4) none

Question 13:

The number of optical isomers formed by hydrogenation of the compound, (CH₃)₂C = CHCH₃ are

1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) zero

Question 14:

Total number of isomers of C₄H₁₀O will be

1) 4
2) 5
3) 6
4) 7

Question 15:

The compound , whose stereo-chemical formula is written below exhibits x geometrical isomers and y optical isomers.
The value of x and y are : 

1) 4 and 4
2) 2 and 2
3) 2 and 4
4) 4 and 2

Question 16:

 The heat exchange at constant volume for the decomposition of Silver (I) Oxide is found to be 3.66 kJ. The heat change at constant pressure will be

1)  > 30.66 kJ

2)  < 30.66 kJ

3)  30.66 kJ

4)  unpredictable

Question 17:

Ammonium dichromate on heating gives:

1) chromic acid and ammonia
2) chromic acid and nitrogen
3) chromic oxide and nitrogen
4) chromic oxide and ammonia

Question 18:

Given that Zn + ½ O₂ --> ZnO + 35.28 kj

HgO --> Hg + ½ O₂ + 9.11 kj
so the heat of reaction Zn + HgO --> ZnO + Hg is

 1) 26.17 kj
 2) - 44.39 kj
 3)  44.39 kj
 4) 2.617 kj.

Question 19:

The reaction conditions leading to the best yield of C₂H₅Cl are:

1) C₂H₆(excess) + Cl₂→
2) C₂H₆ + Cl₂→
3) C₂H₆ + Cl₂(excess)→
4) none of these

Question 20:

Reaction involved in the sequence
$$CH_3CONH_2\;\;\underrightarrow{Br_2/KOH}\;\;\;CH_3NH_2\;\;\underrightarrow{C_6H_5COCl}\;\;CH_3NHCOC_6H_5$$ are

1) Hofmann and schotten - Baumann
2) Stephen and cannizzaro
3) Hofmann and friedel crafts
4) Bauveqult - Blanc and Schlotten - Baumann

Question 21:

In the given reaction $$\displaystyle CH_{3}-CH_{2}-COOH\xrightarrow[\left ( ii \right )Br_{2}/\Delta ]{\left ( i \right )AgNO_{3}}\left [ X \right ]$$, $$\displaystyle \left [ X \right ]$$ will be :

1) propyl bromide
2) propyl propanoate
3) ethyl bromide
4) none

Question 22:

A boy weighing 20 Kg is running with a speed of 18 km/hr18 km/hr. What is his de-Broglie wavelength?

1) 6.626×10⁻³⁴
2) 6.626×10⁻³⁶
3) 3.626×10⁻³⁴
4) 3.626×10⁻³⁶

Question 23:

Which one of the following sets of ions represent the collection of isoelectronic species? 

1) K⁺,Ca²⁺,Sc³⁺,Cl⁻
2) Na⁺,Mg²⁺,Al³⁺,Cl⁻
3) K⁺,Cl⁻,Mg²⁺,Sc³⁺
4) Na⁺,Ca²⁺,Sc³⁺,F⁻

Question 24:

The value of (n2+n1) and  $$\left( { n }_{ 2 }^{ 2 }-{ n }_{ 1 }^{ 2 } \right) $$ forHe⁺ ion in atomic spectrum are 4 and 8 respectively. The wavelength of emitted photon when electron jump from n2 to n1 is:

1) $$\dfrac { 32 }{ 9 } { R }_{ H }$$
2) $$\dfrac { 9 }{ 32 } { R }_{ H }$$
3) $$\dfrac { 9 }{ 32{ R }_{ H } } $$
4) N$$\dfrac { 32 }{ 9{ R }_{ H } } $$

Question 25:

When 10mL of ethyl alcohol (density =0.7893gmL⁻¹) is mixed with 20 mL of water (density 0.9971 gmL⁻¹) at 25^oC, the final solution has a density of 0.9571gmL⁻¹. The percentage change in total volume on mixing is :

1) 1%
2) 2.4%
3) 3.1%
4) none of these

Question 26:

Ethyl alcohol reacts at a faster rate with HI than with HCl in forming the corresponding ethyl halides under identical conditions mainly because:

1) HI, being a stronger acid, protonates ethyl alcohol at oxygen much better and helps substitution.
2) the bond length in HI is much shorter than that in HCl.
3) I− is a much better leaving group
4) I− is a much better nucleophile than Cl−

Question 27:

The final product formed when acetaldehyde is reduced with sodium and alcohol is

1) Ethane
2) Ethyl alcohol
3) Ethylene
4) All

Question 28:

An isotone of ⁷⁶ Ge₃₂ is
1) ⁷⁷Ge₃₂
2) ⁷⁷As₃₃
3) ⁷⁷Se₃₄
4) ⁷⁸Se₇₄

Question 29:

The number of enantiomers of the compound CH₃CHBrCHBrCOOH is

1) 0

2) 1

3) 3

4) 4

Question 30:

Which of the following is used as a sources of hydrogen for filling of balloons that is convenient and can be carried around?

1) Lithium hydride
2) Sodium borohydride
3) Calcium metal
4) Sodium formate

Question 31:

KF crystallizes in the NaCl type structure. If the radius of K⁺ ions 132 pm and that of F⁻ ion is 135 pm, what is the closest KF distance (in pm)?

1) 428
2) 534
3) 755
4) 378???????

Question 32:

Which of the following statement is not true about partition chromatography?

1) Stationary phase is a finely divided solid adsorbent

2) Paper chromatography is an example of partition chromatography.

3) Separation depends upon equilibration of solute between a mobile and a stationary phase.

4) Mobile phase can be a gas.

Question 33:

One litre of water contains 10⁻⁷ moles of H⁺ ions. Degree of ionisation of water (in percentage) is

1) 1.18×10⁻⁷
2) 1.18×10⁻⁹
3) 3.6×10⁻⁹
4) 3.6×10⁻⁷

Question 34:

The enthalpy of hydrogenation of cyclohexene is −119.5kJmol⁻¹. If resonance energy of benzene is −150.4kJmol⁻¹, its enthalpy of hydrogenation would be:

1) −269.9kJmol⁻¹
2) −358.5kJmol⁻¹
3) −508.9kJmol⁻¹
4) −208.1kJmol⁻¹

Question 35:

In the manufacture of nitric acid by ostwald,s process, the catalyst used are

 1) finely divided iron
 2) Pt-Rn gauze
 3) vanadium pantoxide
 4) molybdenum

Question 36:

2,3-Dimethyl-2-butene can be prepared by heating which of the following compounds with a strong acid

1) (CH₃)₂C=CH-CH₂CH₃
2) (CH₃)₂CH-CH₂-CH=CH₂
3) (CH₃)₃C-CH=CH₂
4)

Question 37:

One mole of N_2?H_4? loses 10 moles of electrons to form a new compound Y. Assuming that all nitrogen appear in the new compound, what is the oxidation state of nitrogen in compound Y?

[There is no change in the oxidation state of hydrogen.]

1) −1
2) −3?
3) +3
4) +5

Question 38:

Which of the following reactions takes place at higher temperature range ( 900 K-1500K) in blast furnace?

1) $$3Fe_2O_3+ CO \rightarrow 2Fe_3O_4+ CO_2$$
2) $$FeO+ CO \rightarrow Fe + CO_2$$
3) $$Fe_3O_4+ 4CO \rightarrow 3Fe + 4CO_2$$
4) $$Fe_2O_3+ CO \rightarrow 2FeO+CO_2$$

Question 39:

Phenol reacts with bromine in carbon disulphide at low temperature to give

1)  2, 4, 6-Tribromophenol

2)  p-Bromophenol

3)  o-and p-Bromophenol

4)  m-Bromophenol

Question 40:

0.56g of lime (CaO) was treated with 100ml of 0.5M oxalic acid is give ppt of CaC₂O₄. The filtrate required V ml of 0.2M NaOH for complete neutralization. The value of V is: (atomic Weight of Ca=40, O=16).

1) 800ml
2) 400ml
3) 100ml
4) none

Question 41:

The compound used as a preservative for food products such as tomato ketchup and fruit juices is

1) Sodium benzoate
2) Formic acid
3) Sodium Salicylate
4) Sodium acetate.

Question 42:

The correct sequence of decrease in the bond angle of the following hydrides is

1) NH₃ > PH₃ > AsH₃ > SbH₃
2) NH₃ > AsH₃ > PH₃ > SbH₃
3) SbH₃ > AsH₃ >PH₃ > NH₃
4) PH₃ > NH₃ > AsH₃ > SbH₃

Question 43:

Aliphatic amide on treatment with HNO₂ gives the gas

1) CO₂
2) N₂
3) O₂
4) H₂

Question 44:

Hexane and 3-methylpentane are examples of:

1) enantiomers

2) stereoisomers

3) diastereomers

4) none of these

Question 45:

Within a specified period, an increase in atomic number is usually accompanied by:

1) an increase in atomic radius and an increase in electronegativity.
2) a decrease in atomic radius and an increase in electronegativity.
3) an increase in atomic radius and a decrease in electronegativity.
4) a decrease in atomic radius and a decrease in electronegativity