Question 1:

A coil, a capacitor and an AC source of rms voltage 24V are connected in series. By varying the frequency of the source, a maximum rms current of 6A is observed. If coil is connected to a dc battery of emf 12 volt and internal resistance 4Ω, then current through it in steady state is :

1) 2.4A
2) 1.8A
3) 1.5A
4) 1.2A

Question 2:

In the circuit shown in the figure, E=50.0V,R=250Ω and  C=0.500μF. The switch S is closed for a long time, and no voltage is measured across the capacitor. After the switch is opened, the voltage across the capacitor reaches a maximum value of 150V. What is the inductance L?


1) 0.98H
2) 0.78H
3) 0.38H
4) 0.28H

Question 3:

 The initial activity of a sample is measured to be 3400 decays/seconds. After 145 seconds the decay rate is measured to be 150 decays/seconds. The half-life of the sample is approximately:

(1) 2 seconds.

(2) 6 seconds.

(3)  32 seconds..

(4) 27 seconds.

Question 4:

 An element with atomic no. z = 11 emits Ka - X ray of wavelength l, then the atomic no. of the element which emits µ - K X ray of wavelength 4l is

(1)11
2) 44
(3) 6
(4) 5

Question 5:

A condenser of capacity 500μF is charged at the rate of 200μC per second. The time required to raise its potential by 20V is :

1) 50 s

2) 100 s

3) 20 s

4) 10 s

Question 6:

The charge on a 48 μF capacitor is increased from 0.1 C to 0.5 C. The energy stored in the capacitor increases  by

1) 250 J

2) 2500 J

3) 2.5×10⁶ J

4) 2.42×10⁻⁶ J 

Question 7:

The voltage versus current plot for an ideal power supply should:

(1) have voltage linearly proportional to current.

(2) have voltage independent of current (for a specified polarity).

(3) have a voltage response similar to a zener diode.

(4) cover a wide range of voltage and current

Question 8:

Two resistors are connected in series across a potential difference. Resistor A has twice the resistance of resistor B. If the current carried by resistor A is I, what is the current carried by resistor B?

(1) I

(2) 2I

(3) I/2

(4) 4I

Question 9:

When a certain metallic surface is illuminated with monochromatic light of wavelength $$\lambda$$, the stopping potential for photoelectric current is $$3V_0$$ and when the same surface is illuminated with light of wavelength $$2\lambda$$, the stopping potential is $$V_0$$. The threshold wavelength of this surface for photoelectric effect is

1) $$6\lambda$$
2) $$4\lambda /3$$
3) $$4\lambda$$
4) $$8\lambda$$

Question 10:

 Choke coil is :

(1) induction coil of high resistance and high inductance

(2) induction coil of high resistance and low inductance

(3) induction coil of low resistance and high inductance

(4) induction coil of low resistance and low inductance

Question 11:

 Lenz's law is based upon :

(1) law of conservation of energy

(2) law of conservation of angular momentum

(3) law of conservation of momentum

(4) law of conservation of charge

Question 12:

The electric field associated with an e.m. wave in vacuum is given by $$\vec {E} = 40\cos (kz - 6\times 10^{8}t)\hat {i}$$, where $$E, z$$ and $$t$$ in $$volt/m$$, meter and seconds respectively. The value of wave vector $$k$$ is

1) $$6m^{-1}$$
2) $$3m^{-1}$$
3) $$2m^{-1}$$
4) $$0.5m^{-1}$$

Question 13:

 Ge at absolute temp is a :

(1) super condutor  
(2) conductor
(3) semi conductor        
(4) insulator

Question 14:

  If r_p = 3 x 10³ ohm and gm = 20 m. mho if triode is used as an amplifier and RL = 6 kohm, then voltage amplification is

(1) 40
(2) 60
(3) 20
(4) 30

Question 15:

A charged oil drop is suspended in a uniform field of 3 x 10⁴  v/m so that it neither falls nor rises. The charge on the drop will (Take the mass of the charge  = 9.9 x 10^-15 kg  and g = 10 m/s²  )

1) 1.25×10¹⁰C
2) 2.5×10¹⁰C
3) 3.3×10¹⁰ C
4) none

Question 16:

A point charge +Q having mass m is fixed on horizontal smooth surface. Another point charge having magnitude +2Q & mass 2m is projected horizontally towards the charge +Q from the distance with velocity V0 
Force applied by floor on the fixed charge in horizontal direction, when distance between charges becomes 'd'

1) $$\frac{2KQ^2}{d^2}$$
2) $$\frac{KQ^2}{d^2}$$
3) zero
4) none

Question 17:

Two planets are circling around a distant star. The orbital radius of planet A is half that of planet (2) Which statement is correct?

1) w_A >w_B and v_A > v_B

2) w_A >w_B and v_A  < v_B

3) w_A =w_B and v_A > v_B

4) w_A =w_B and v_A < v_B

Question 18:

An object weighs 100. newtons on Earth’s surface. When it is moved to a point one Earth radius above Earth’s surface, it will weigh

1) 25.0 N
2) 50.0 N
3) 100. N
4) 400. N

Question 19:

A motorcyclist rides onto a road at 22.2 m/s at 12:00 noon and maintains that speed for the rest of her journey. At 12:01 a car travelling at 27.8 m/s turns onto the road at the same point as did the motorcycle. How many seconds after the motorcycle started will it be passed by the car?

1) 48 sec
2) 102 sec
3) 298 sec
4) 78 sec

Question 20:

The absence of atmosphere on the surface of any planet is :

(1) V_rms is greater than escape velocity

(2) Average kinetic energy gas molecules is negligible to the gravitational force on the planet

(3) V_rms less than escape velocity

(4) None

Question 21:

 If the pressure of a gas is doubled at constant temperature, then the velocity of sound in the gas becomes :

(1) unchanged
(2) √2 times
(3) half
(4) double

Question 22:

A body of mass M just starts sliding down an inclined plane ( rough) with inclination θ. such that tanθ=1/3. The force acting on body down the plane in this position is

1) Mg
2) Mg/3
3) (2/3)Mg
4) Mg/√10

Question 23:

A body m1 of mass 9 kg and another body m2 of mass 6 kg are connected by a light inextensible string. Consider a smooth inclined plane of inclination 30 over which one of them can be placed while the other hangs vertically and freely. If t1 and t2 are the time taken in dragging m1 and m2 up the whole length of the plane, find t2/t1.

1) 1

2) 2

3) 3

4) 4

Question 24:

 A conducting loop lies in the plane of this page and carries a clockwise induced current. Which of the following statements could be true?

(1) A constant external magnetic field is directed into the page.

(2) A constant external magnetic field is directed out of the page.

(3) An increasing external magnetic field is directed into the page.

(4) A decreasing external magnetic field is directed into the page.

Question 25:

 In the coils and magnets lab, why did we zero the gaussmeter inside the iron pipe?

(1) To eliminate the systematic error of a zero offset.

(2) To measure the perpendicular component of the earth’s magnetic field.

(3) To offset the systematic error of the earth’s magnetic field.

(4) To estimate the error that arises with the uncertainty in distance.

Question 26:

Thin semi-circular part ABC has mass m1 and diameter AOC has mass m2. Here, axis passes through mid-point of diameter and the axis is perpendicular to plane ABC.
Here, AO=OC=R. The moment of inertia of this composite system about the axis is:

1) $$\dfrac {m_{1}R^{2}}{2} + \dfrac {m_{2}R^{2}}{3}$$
2) $$\dfrac {m_{1}R^{2}}{2} + \dfrac {m_{2}R^{2}}{6}$$
3) $$m_{1}R^{2} + \dfrac {m_{2}R^{2}}{3}$$
4) $$m_{1}R^{2} + \dfrac {m_{2}R^{2}}{12}$$

Question 27:

An explosion breaks a rock into three parts in a horizontal plane. Two of them go off at right angles to each other. The first part of mass 1 kg moves with a speed of 12 ms^-1 and the second part of mass 2 kg moves with 8 ms^-1 speed. If the third part flies off with 4 ms^–1 speed, then its mass is

1) 3 kg
2) 5 kg
3) 7 kg
4) 17 kg

Question 28:

 A guitar string oscillates with a fundamental frequency of 200 Hz. What is the fundamental frequency if you increase the mass per unit length of this string by a factor of 4 while keeping the tension constant?

1) 50 Hz

2) 100 Hz

3) 200 Hz

4) 400 Hz

Question 29:

 A pendulum having a period of oscillation of 2 seconds is taken on a planet where g is four times that on the earth. The period of the pendulum would be

1) 4 s

2) 2 s

3) 1 s

4) ½ s

Question 30:

If the frequency (F), velocity (V) and density (D) are taken as fundamental quantities then the dimensional formula for momentum in this new system will be 

1) D^-1V^-4F3
2) D¹V⁴F^-3
3) D¹V¹F^-2
4) D²V²F²

Question 31:

A Cylindrical tank is filled with water to a level of 3m. A hole is opened at a height of 52.5 cm from bottom. The ratio of the area of hole to that at cross sectional area at cylinder is 0.1. Find the square of velocity with which water is coming out (g = 10m/sec²)

(1) 50 (m/sec)²                 (2)  40 (m/sec)²

(3) 51.5 (m/sec)²         (4) 50.5 (m/sec)²

Question 32:

If the pressure of gas is increased from 1.01×10 ⁵ pa to 1.165×10⁵ pa and volume is decreases by 10% at constant temperature then the Bulk modulus of the gas is

(1) 15.5 × 10⁵ pa
(2) 1.4 × 10⁵ pa
(3) 1.55 × 10⁵ pa
(4) 0.0155 × 10⁵ pa

Question 33:

A plane mirror is moving with velocity $$\displaystyle{4}{\left(\hat{{i}}\right)}+{4}{\left(\hat{{j}}\right)}+{8}{\left(\hat{{k}}\right)}$$ 
 A point object in front of the mirror moves with a velocity  $$\displaystyle{3}{\left(\hat{{i}}\right)}+{4}{\left(\hat{{j}}\right)}+{5}{\left(\hat{{k}}\right)}$$
 . Here, kˆ  is along the normal to the plane mirror and facing towards the object. The velocity of the image is

1)  $$\displaystyle-{3}{\left(\hat{{i}}\right)}-{4}{\left(\hat{{j}}\right)}+{5}{\left(\hat{{k}}\right)}$$
2) $$\displaystyle{3}{\left(\hat{{i}}\right)}+{4}{\left(\hat{{j}}\right)}+{11}{\left(\hat{{k}}\right)}$$
3)  $$\displaystyle-{4}{\left(\hat{{i}}\right)}+{5}{\left(\hat{{j}}\right)}+{11}{\left(\hat{{k}}\right)}$$
4) $$\displaystyle{7}{\left(\hat{{i}}\right)}+{9}{\left(\hat{{j}}\right)}+{3}{\left(\hat{{k}}\right)}$$

Question 34:

In which of the following heat loss is primarily not due to convection.

Question 35:

In Young's double slit experiment, the fringe width is $$1\times 10^{-4}m$$, if the distance between the slit and screen is doubled and the distance between two slits is reduced to half and the wavelength is changed from $$6.4\times 10^{-7}m$$ to $$4.0\times 10^{-7}m$$, then the value of new fringe width will be

1) $$2.5\times 10^{-4} m$$
2) $$2.0\times 10^{-4} m$$
3) $$1\times 10^{-4} m$$
4) $$0.5\times 10^{-4} m$$

Question 36:

A transverse wave propagating on the string can be described by the equation  y=2sin(10x+300t)..  where x  and  y  are in metres and  tt  in second. If the vibrating string has linear density of  0.6×10⁻³g/cm  then the tension in the string is

1) 5.4N
2) 0.054N
3) 54N
4) 0.0054N

Question 37:

Two identical piano wires have a fundamental frequency of 600 vib/sec, when kept under the same tension. What fractional increase in the tension of one wire will lead to the occurrence of six beats per second when both wires vibrate simultaneously.

1) 0.04
2) 0.01
3) 0.02
4) 0.08

Question 38:

The mass of a large steel ball is 1200 kg. What power is used in raising it to a height of 30. m if the work is performed in 14 seconds?
 1) 2.5 E 4 W
 2) 4.5 E 4 W
 3) 8.5 E 3 W
 4) 9.3 E 4 W

Question 39:

 A crate is pulled a distance d across the floor by a force F. There is a kinetic frictional force K between the crate and the floor. How much work is done on the crate by the frictional force?

1. Kd

2. -Kd

3. (F-K)d

4. (K-F)d

Question 40:

Find the value of current through an inductance of $$0.7H$$ and negligible resistance when connected to an ac source of $$220V$$ and frequency $$50Hz$$. Take $$\pi=\cfrac{22}{7}$$.

1) 1 A
2) 4 A
3) 8 A
4) 2 A

Question 41:

In a series resonant LCR circuit the voltage across R is 100 volts and R = 1k(Ω)withC=2(μ)F. The resonant frequency (ω) is 200rad/s. At resonance the voltage across L is

1) 2.5×10⁻² V
2) 40 V
3) 250 V
4) 4×10⁻³ V

Question 42:

 1 amu is equal to :

(1) 931 MeV
(2) 931 eV
(3) 9.30 eV
(4) 931 KeV

Question 43:

The wavelengths associated with photons and electron are same, the ratio of their momentum will be :

(1) 1 : 1
(2) 2 : 1
(3) 1 : 3
(4) 1 : 3

Question 44:

A 20μF capacitor is charged to potential of 500V and is connected to another 10μF capacitor charged to 200V in parallel. The charging batteries are disconnected. The final potential across the combination is:

1) 233.33V

2) 400V

3) 1200V

4) 600V

Question 45:

In the circuit shown, the charge on the 3μF capacitor at steady state will be:-

1) 6μF

2) 4μc

3) 2/ 3μF

4) 3μF

Question 46:

 Dimethyl terephthalate and ethylene glycol react to form :

1) decreases with increase in     temperature
2) increases with increase in     temperature
3) remains unaffected with  change in     temperature.
4) can be calculated by the relation
    E = mc2

Question 47:

When sodium benzenesulphonate is fused with NaOH, followed by cidification with
HCl, the product formed is :

1) benzensulphonic acid
2) sodium
3) phenol
4) chlorobenzene

Question 48:

The acid which reduces Fehling's solution is :  
 1) Ethanoic acid.
 2) Methanoic acid.
 3) Propanoic acid.
 4) Butanoic acid

Question 49:

Treatment of benzoic acid with Cl₂/FeCl₃ will give________ acid.
 1) o-chlorobenzoic.
 2) p-chlorobenzoic.
 3) m-chlorobenzoic.
 4) 2,4-dichlorobenzoic.

Question 50:

How many electrons can exist in all the atomic orbitals that correspond to the principal quantum number 4?
 
 1. 2
 2. 8
 3. 18
 4. 32

Question 51:

The element used by Rutherford in his famous scattering experiment was :

1) tin
2) gold
3) lead
4) silver

Question 52:

Which one of the following is an extensive property?

1) Molarity
2) molar volume
3) mole fraction
4) number of moles

Question 53:

 Which orbital is represented by the complete wave function Y 420?

1)  4p

2)  3d

3)  3p

4)  4s

Question 54:

Ribose is an example of a/an:
 1) aldopentose.
 2) ketohexose.
 3) aldohexose.
 4) disaccharide.

Question 55:

What is the monomer of polypeptide ?

 1) Glucose
2) amino acid
3) nucleotide
4) nucleoside

Question 56:

The percentage s-character of the hybrid orbitals in methane, ethene and ethyne respectively

1. 10, 20, 40

2.  50, 75, 100

3.  25, 50, 75

4.  25, 33, 50 

Question 57:

Which of the following has maximum covalent character?

1)  AlCl₃

2)  BaCl₂

3)  NaCl

4)  CsCl

Question 58:

At temperature TK, K_p for the reaction of CO₂ with excess of hot graphite to form CO is 9 atm. Calculate the mole% of CO in the equilibrium mixture of gases at a pressure of 4 atm?

1) 55%
2) 25%
3) 30%
4) 75%

Question 59:

Place the following in the correct order of acidity.

(I) CH≡C - CH₂−COOH;   (II) CH₂ = CH - CH₂COOH;   (III) CH₃CH₂CH₂COOH 

1) I > II > III
2) III > II > I
3) II > I > III
4) I > III > II

Question 60:

The half - life period t_½ of a radioactive element is N years. The period of its complete decay is :

1)2 N years
2)N² Years
3)infinity
4)½ N² Years

Question 61:

The rate constant of a reaction depends on : 

1) the temperature of the system
2) the time of reaction
3) the extent of reaction
4) the initial concentration of the     reactants

Question 62:

Frequent use of sprays, oils and antiseptics in the nose during a bad cold may result in :

1) congestion of the mucous membrane in the nose
2) the spreading of the infection to the sinuses
3) damage to the olfactory nerve
4) destruction of white blood cells

Question 63:

The antidiabetic drug which is considered as a postprandial hyperglycaemic regulator is:

1) rosiglitazone
2) piaglitazone
3) repaglinide
4) tolbutamide

Question 64:

The correct order of ionisation energy of C,N,O & F is:

1) F<N<C<O
2) C<N<O<F
3) C<O<N<F
4) F<O<N<C

Question 65:

A, B, C are three elements with atomic numbers, Z-1, Z and Z+1 respectively. B is an inert gas. Identify the elements having same valence shell.

1) A, B
2) B, C
3) A, C
4) A, B, C

Question 66:

 If the ratio of co-ordination no. P to that of Q be Y : Z, then the formula of the solid is-

1) P_yQ_z     2) P_zQ_y     3) P_1/yQ_1/z     4) None

Question 67:

Potassium crystallizes in a body centered lattice Hence the coordination number of potassium in potassium metal is

 1) Zero
 2) 8
 3) 6
 4) 4

Question 68:

 Which of the following is a wrong statement about cast iron ?

1) it contains about 4.5% of  carbon
2) it is also called pig iron
3) it contracts on cooling
4) it is corrosion resistant

Question 69:

A reagent used to test the presence of Fe⁺² ion is :

1) NH₄CNS
2) H₂S
3) K₃Fe(CN)₆
4) K₄Fe(CN)₆.

Question 70:

Which one of the following does not conduct electricity

 1) fused NaCl.
 2) solid NaCl
 3) solid Chloride Solution
 4) copper.

Question 71:

A metal rod is dipped in a solution of its ions. Its electrode potential is independent of

 1) temperature of solutions.
 2) concentration of solution
 3) area of metal exposed
 4) nature of metal

Question 72:

The specific conductance of saturated solution of CaF₂ is 3.86 × 10⁻⁵ ohm cm⁻¹ and that of water used for solution is 0.15×10⁻⁵. The specific conductance of CaF₂ alone is:

1) 3.71 × 10⁻⁵
2) 4.01 × 10⁻⁵
3) 3.7 × 10⁻⁴
4) 3.86 × 10⁻⁴

Question 73:

The conductivity of 0.20 M solution of KCl at 298 K is 0.0248S cm⁻¹. Calculate its molar conductivity.

1) 112 Scm²mol⁻¹
2) 124Scm²mol⁻¹
3) 136Scm²mol⁻¹
4) 148Scm²mol⁻¹

Question 74:

The smog is essentially caused by the presence of: 

1) O₂ and O₃

2) O₂ and N₂

3) oxides of sulphur and nitrogen

4) O₃ and N₂

Question 75:

__________ is made from cow dung is mainly used as fertilizer to prevent soil pollution.

1) Manure

2) DDT

3) Sodium chlorate

4) Sodium arsenite

Question 76:

  In blast furnace, the highest temperature is in :

1) slag zone

2) reduction zone

3) combustion zone

4) fusion zone

Question 77:

An aqueous solution of colourless metal sulphate M gives a white precipitate with NH₄OH. This was soluble in excess of NH₄OH. On passing H₂S through this solution a white precipitate is formed. The metal in metal salt is

 1. aluminum
 2. calcium
 3. barium
 4. zinc

Question 78:

Which of the following compounds does not undergo nucleophilic substitution
reaction ?

1) ethyl bromide
2) vinyl chloride
3) isopropyl chloride
4) benzyl chloride

Question 79:

Liebermann's test is answered by :

  1) methylamine
2) aniline
3) phenol
4) ethyl benzoate

Question 80:

Addition of HI on double bond of propene yields iso-propyl iodide as major product. It is because the addition process through

1) Homolysis
2) More stable carbocation
3) More stable carbanion
4) More stable free radica

Question 81:

Which of the following compounds shall not produced propene by reaction with HBr followed by elimination of direct only elimination reaction ?

1) H₂C=C=O
2) 
3)
4)

Question 82:

Of the two solvent H₂O and D₂O, NaCl dissolves:

1) equally in both solvents
2) only in H₂O but remains insoluble in D₂O
3) more in D₂O
4) more in H₂O

Question 83:

Unstable hardness of water is due to the presence of:

1) CaCl₂, MgSO₄
2) Ca⁺², Mg⁺²
3) K⁺, CaCO₃
4) Ca(HCO₃)₂, Mg(HCO₃)₂ 

Question 84:

Precipitation takes place when the product of concentration of ions :

1) is less than their solubility product
2) is negligible
3) equals their solubility product
4) exceeds their solubility  product.

Question 85:

The solubility product of silver chloride is 1.8x10^-10 at 298 k. The soluability of AgCl in 0.01m HCl solution in more cm^-3 is

 1) 3.6 x 10^-8
 2) 2.4 x 10^-9
 3) 1.8 x 10^-8
 4) 0.9 x 10^-9

Question 86:

How many gram of NaCl is required to make 200 mL aqueous solution of 5%(w/v) NaCl.

1) 5 g
2) 8 g
3) 2 g
4) 10 g

Question 87:

Two glucose solutions are mixed. One has a volume of 480 mL and a concentration of 1.50 M and the second has a volume of 520 mL and concentration 1.20 M. The molarity of final solution is :

1) 1.20 M
2) 1.50 M
3) 1.344 M
4) 2.70 M

Question 88:

Amides can be converted into amines by:

1) Sandmeyer reaction
2) Dehydration reaction
3) Hofmann's reaction
4) Carbylamine reaction.

Question 89:

When Reactivity of Halogen atom is minimum in

 1) propyl oxide
 2) propyl chloride
 3) isopropyl chloride
 4) isopropyl bromide 
 

Question 90:

Ammonia gas dissolves in water to form NH₄OH. In this reaction water acts as :

1) A conjugate base
2) A non-polar solvent
3) An acid
4) A base.

Question 91:

 The apical cell theory of the development of meristems is attributed to
 1. Schmidt and Foster
 2. Popham and Chan
 3. Hanstein
 4. Hoffmeister and Nagelli

Question 92:

 Collenchyma's is found in stems and petioles of :

 1. Hydrophytes
 2. Herbaceous climbers
 3. Xerophytes
 4. Lianas

Question 93:

 Spicules in sponges are the products of
 
1. Scleroblasts
2. Archaeocytes
3. Choanocoytes
4. Amoebocytes

Question 94:

 In the blood vascular sysrtem of Earthworm there are four pairs of hearts present in the first 13 segments. These are situated in segments

 1. 7th.8th,9th and 10th
 2. 9th, 10th, 12th and 13th
 3. 8th, 9th, 12th and 13th
 4. 7th, 9th, 12th and 13th

Question 95:

Which life process is classified as autotrophic in some organisms and heterotrophic in other organisms?

1) hormonal regulation
2) nutrition
3) anaerobic respiration
4) transport

Question 96:

All of Earth's water, land, and atmosphere within which life exists is known as

1) a population
2) a community
3) a biome
4) the biosphere

Question 97:

The binomial system in the present sensor is employed in the publication

 1) Species plantaum
 2) Origin of species
 3) Genera Planitarum
 4) An integrated system of classification of flowering plant

Question 98:

Some universal rules of nomenclature are as follows: (Identify the correct one)

1) Both the words in a biological name, when handwritten, are separately underlined, or printed in italics to indicate their Italian origin.
2) The first word denoting the genus starts with a capital letter and the specific epithet also starts with a capital letter.
3) The first word in a biological name represents the genus while the second component denotes the specific epithet.
4) Biological names are generally in Italy and written in italics. They are Latinised or derived from Latin irrespective of their origin.

Question 99:

 In which of the following organisms are enzymes absent ?

1) Fungi
2) Viruses
3) Algae
4) Blue green algae

Question 100:

 The vitamin which is deficient in diet of anemic persons is :

 1. B12
 2. B6
 3. A
 4. Both 1 and 3

Question 101:

Normally used fusogenic agent in

 1) DNA ligaze
 2) Glycerol
 3) Polyethylene glycol
 4) Acetic acid

Question 102:

 The AV node in the heart of man is
 1. Pace maker
 2. Pace setter
 3. Purkinji fibres
 4. Bundle of his

Question 103:

 Blood groups were discovered by

 1. Landsteiner
 2. Ronald Ross
 3. Altmann
 4. Losch
 

Question 104:

 The spindle fibres arise from
 1. Centriole
 2. Centromere
 3. Nucleus
 4. Mitochondria

Question 105:

Chromosomes with median centromere and equal arms are termed

(1) Telocentric

(2) Acentric

(3). Metacentric

(4) Submetacentric

Question 106:

 If the ribosomes of a cell are destroyed then

 1. Respiration will not take place
 2. Photosynthesis will not occur
 3. Fats will not be stored
 4. Proteins will not be formed
 

Question 107:

Tissue that contains fat globules is known as

1) Ciliated epithelium
2) Adipose tissue
3) Glandular epithelium
4) None of these

Question 108:

An example of merocrine gland is-

(1) Sebaceous gland
(2) Pineal gland
(3) Salivary gland
(4) Mammary gland

Question 109:

 Milk protein is acted upon by a gastric enzyme

 1. Caesin
 2. Rennin
 3. Pepsin
 4. Caesinogen

Question 110:

Which of the following is caused in human liver by anaerobic bacteria?

(1) Foamy liver
(2) Hobnail liver
(3) Liver spots
(4) None of these

Question 111:

A rocky island appears as oceanic waters recede. Which of the following forms of vegetation would probably appear first on the bare rocks?

1. lichens
2. weeds
3. shrubs
4. pioneer trees

Question 112:

An ecosystem, such as an aquarium, is self-sustaining if it involves the interaction between organisms, a flow of energy, and the presence of

1) equal numbers of plants and animals
2) more animals than plants
3) materials cycles
4) pioneer organisms

Question 113:

The ultimate source of energy for the entire biosphere is

1) soil
2) the sun
3) the ocean
4) atmosphere

Question 114:

Which of the following is a herbicide used for eliminating dicot weeds?

1) 2, 4-D
2) IAA
3) IBA
4) GA

Question 115:

Lead is mainly considered

(1) Smoke and smog

(2) Air pollutant

(3) Soil pollutant

(4) Water pollutant

Question 116:

 The sudden appearance of an ancestral character in a member of today's population is called :

 1. Regression
 2. Replicon
 3. Atavism
 4. all of the above

Question 117:

The 'Origin of Species' of Darwin was published in the year

(1) 1959

(2) 1859

(3) 1869

(4) 1958

Question 118:

Each human kidney has nearly

1. 10,000 nephrons
2. 50,000 nephrons
3. 100,000 nephrons
4. 1 million nephrons

Question 119:

Which waste product of a grasshopper may be retained and used in other metabolic activities?

1) water
2) uric acid
3) carbon dioxide
4) feces

Question 120:

 Schizont stage in the life cycle of malarial parasite occurs in
 1. Erythrocytes of man
 2. Stomach of Anopheles
 3. Blood of man
 4. Salivary glands of Anopheles

Question 121:

 Which of the following is a bacterial disease ?

 1. Rabies
 2. Measles
 3. Small pox
 4. Tuberculosis

Question 122:

All of the following hormones are involved in the menstrual cycle EXCEPT:

1. estrogen
2. LH
3. prolactin
4. progesterone

Question 123:

 Mastology is the study of-

(1) Breast
(2) Liver
(3) Brain
(4) Lungs

Question 124:

 A centrum concave in front as well as behind is called :

 1. Amphiplatyan
 2. Amphicoelous
 3. Acoelous
 4. Procoelous

Question 125:

 In which vertebra of the rabbit, the neural spine is long and directed backwards ?

 1. Thoracic
 2. Lumbar
 3. Cervical
 4. Sacral

Question 126:

 Measures to control plant diseases are
 1. Prophylactic
 2. Therapeutic
 3. Immunization
 4. All the three

Question 127:

 The antibiotic activity of fungus Pencillium was first noted by

 1. De Bary
 2. Walker
 3. Flemming
 4. Blakeslee

Question 128:

 Which of the element is essential for life of animals and not for plants ?

 1. Calcium
 2. Iodine
 3. Phosphorus
 4. Potassium

Question 129:

 The element that helps in transport of electrons from water in photosynthesis

 1. Molybdenum
 2. Zinc
 3. Chlorine
 4. Boron

Question 130:

 Coupling and Repulsion are the two faces of :

 1. Crossing over
 2. Linkage
 3. Chiasmata
 4. Mutation

Question 131:

DNA contains all the following molecules EXCEPT:
 
 1. uracil
 2. guanine
 3. adenine
 4. deoxyribose

Question 132:

 The condition of androecium in the Malvaceae is

 1. Diadelphous
 2. Didynamous
 3. Syngenesious
 4. Monadelphous
 

Question 133:

A leaf showing the differentiated in mesophyll is designated as

 1) Dorsiventral
 2) Isobilateral
 3) Scale
 4) Pulvinus

Question 134:

 In mammals the membranous labyrinth is situated in

 1.Periotic
 2. Prootic
 3. Ear ossicles
 4. Tympanic bulla

Question 135:

 Phonoreceptors are located in the

 1. lining of the nasal chamber
 2. organs of corti
 3. corpora quadrigemina
 4. buccal cavity

Question 136:

Competition is severest among members of

1) the same ecological community
2) different ecological communities
3) the same genus
4) the same species
 

Question 137:

Aestivation in squirrels is the result of

1) Chill coma
2) Heat coma
3) Hunger
4) Gonadal Quiescence

Question 138:

Each molecule of CO₂ fixed during Calvin cycle would consume

 1) 2 ATP; 4NADPH₂ molecules
 2) 3 ATP; 2NADPH₂ molecules
 3) 1 ATP; 4NADPH₂ molecules
 4) 2 ATP; 6NADPH₂ molecules

Question 139:

Which of the following is a pigment precursor?

 1) Erythrocyanin
 2) Anthrocyanin
 3) Chromogen
 4) Phycocyanin

Question 140:

The following ratio of hormonal concentration is required to induce callus to form shoot and root.

 1) Gibberellins à auxin
 2) Auxin à Cytokinin
 3) Gibberellins à Cytokinin
 4) Ethylene à auxins

Question 141:

The growth hormone 6-Furfuryl amino purine is

 1) an Auxin
 2) a kinetin
 3) a gibberellin
 4) an abscisic acid

Question 142:

 The algae which help in the fixation of nitrogen belong to class

 1. Rhodophyceae
 2. Chlorophyceae
 3. Cyanophyceae
 4. Phaeophyceae
 

Question 143:

 Volvox is a

 1. a filamentous form
 2. a branched filamentous form
 3. colonial form
 4. single celled

Question 144:

The actual population of Pea plant in F2 generation obtained by Mendel was

 1) 787
 2) 277
 3) 8064
 4 )1064

Question 145:

The incomplete dominance was found out in Mirabilis Jalaba by :

 1) Mendel
 2) Correns
 3) Shull
 4) Bateson

Question 146:

 An egg in which the yolk is concentrated towards one pole is called

 1. telolecithal
 2. centrolecithal
 3. isolecithal
 4. mesolecithal

Question 147:

 The diploid parthenogenesis is termed as

 1. Thelytokous
 2. Arrehenotokous
 3. Natural
 4. Obligatory

Question 148:

 Besides K+ ions another factor related to stomatal movement is

 1) O2 is given out during photosynthesis
 2) Accumulation of O2 used in respiration.
 3) Liberation of water molecules
 4) Photosynthesis carbon assimilation

Question 149:

The number of ATP molecules used during glycolysis is

1) 8
2) 6
3) 2
4) 10

Question 150:

 Pollination by birds is

 1. anemophily
 2. hydrophily
 3. entomophily
 4. ornithophily

Question 151:

The two different genetic sources of protoplasts usually used are :

 1) Mesophyll and Parenchyma cells
 2) Mesophyll and epidermal cells
 3) Epidermal and Paranchyma cells
 4) Mesophyll + Collenchyma cells

Question 152:

Bordeaux mixture is used to control

1) bacteria
2) fungi
3) insects
4) angiosperms
 

Question 153:

Black arm of cotton can be controlled by

1) soil treatment
2) fumigation
3) eradication of weed hosts
4) seed treatment

Question 154:

 Palaeontology is the study of

 1. Primates
 2. Birds
 3. Fossils
 4. Bones

Question 155:

Gerontology is the science that studies

1) Fetuses 
2) Cause of death
3) Physiological disorders
4) Old age

Question 156:

Which of the following would be most useful in reducing the rate of transpiration in a plant?

1) Increasing the extent of the root system
2) Having a thin cuticle
3) Having sunken stomata
4) Increasing the surface area to volume ratio of leaves

Question 157:

The water potential of pure water

 1) 100%
 2) 50%
 3) zero
 4) None

Question 158:

 The organisation of the shoot apex into tunica and corpus is determined largely on the basis of :

 1. rate of shoot tip growth
 2. rate of cell division
 3. planes of cell division
 4. regions of meristematic activity

Question 159:

Which of the following is / are true?

 a) Aerenchyma cells are present in aquatic plants
 
 b) Parenchyma cell wall is made up of cellulose and Pectin
 
 c) Collenchyma cells wall is made of cellulose only
 
 d) Sclenchyma cells are dead
 
 1) (a) and (b) only
 2) (a) and (c) only
 3) (c) and (d) only
 4) (a) and (d) only

Question 160:

 Which of the following is a coelenterate ?

 1. Sea pen
 2. Sea horse
 3. Sea archin
 4. Sea cucumber

Question 161:

The spines on the tough rin of jack fruit represents

 1) Carpel
 2) Filament
 3) Stigma
 4) Style

Question 162:

Most autotrophs store energy in the form of

1) starches
2) carbon dioxide
3) water
4) nucleic acids

Question 163:

Discontinuous feeding animals are-

(1) Herbivores
(2) Carnivores
(3) Omnivores
(4) All the above

Question 164:

Antiviral proteins produced by viral infected cells are known as

 1) Interferons
 2) replicons
 3) chromatin
 4) Penicillin

Question 165:

The correct ordering among the taxa a) family b) series c) Genus and) order in the taxonomic hierachy.

 1) a, b, c and d
 2) b, c, d and a
 3) b, d, a and c
 4) c, a, b and d

Question 166:

 The substance that converts insoluble food materials into soluble state are :

 1. enzymes
 2. vitamins
 3. hormones
 4. all do this

Question 167:

By which of the following mechanisms does an enzyme increase the rate of a reaction?

1. It provides the initial energy to start the reaction.
2 It increases the rate of collisions between molecules.
3. It lowers the activation energy of the reaction.
4. It changes the equilibrium point of the reaction.

Question 168:

Smallest R.B.Cs in the following mammals are found in

1. Man
2. Musk deer
3. Rhinocros
4. Whale

Question 169:

Heart murmurs usually loud, booming, heard over the aorta are called-

(1) Hemic murmurs
(2) Aneurysmal murmurs
(3) Bruit murmurs
(4) Both (2) and (3)

Question 170:

Meiosis in diploid organism result in 

1) Production of gametes
2) Reduction in the number of chromosomes
3) Introduction of variation
4) All of the above

Question 171:

Meiosis occurs in organisms during 

1) Sexual reproduction
2) Vegetative reproduction
3) Both sexual and vegetative reproduction
4) None of these

Question 172:

The layer of cytoplasm forming the vacuole membrane is known as

(1) Cytoplasm

(2) Tonoplasm

(3) Nucleoplasm

(4) None of the above

Question 173:

The scientist/s who first described the structure of Golgi complex using electron microscopy were
 
1) Palade and Claude
2) Dalton and Felix
3) Baker and Dalton
4) Camillo Golgi

Question 174:

A drastic change in the metabolic rate of a human would most likely result from the

1) oversecretion of the salivary glands
2) overproduction of auxins
3) deterioration of the skeletal system
4) malfunction of the endocrine glands

Question 175:

In humans, which part of colon joins the rectum?

(1) Sigmoid colon
(2) Ascending colon
(3) Descending colon
(4) Transverse colon

Question 176:

 Neoglucogenesis is the formation of glucose from

1) non-carbohydrate substances
2) glycogen
3) non-glucose monosaccharides
4) all of the above

Question 177:

Miller and Urey's experiment confirmed the fact that the earth's atmosphere at the beginning was

1) reducing
2) oxidative
3) nitrogenous
4) neutral

Question 178:

The scores of dog breeds that are exhibited in dog shows are the outcome of

1) Natural selection
2) Artificial selection
3) Sexual selection
4) Special creation
 

Question 179:

Water, ions, nutrients from nephron tubules are reabsorbed into-

(1) Peritubular capillaries
(2) Renal vein
(3) Renal artery
(4) None of these

Question 180:

Counter current system is at work in

1) loop of Henle 
2) distal convoluted tubule
3) glomerulus    
4) collecting duct