Question 1:

The length of potentiometer wire is 10 cm. and resistance is 0.005 ohm /cm. A battery of 2 Volt emf and 1.5  ohm internal resistance is connected to the wire will have potential gradient :

(1) 4 x 10^-4 v/cm.
(2) 0.05 v/cm.
(3) 0.5 v/cm.
(4) 0.005 v/cm.

Question 2:

1 amp. current flow is a circuit when a cell is connected to 1 ohm resistance and 0.5 amp. to a 3 ohm resistance. The internal resistance of cell is :

(1) 2 ohm

(2) 1.0 ohm

(3) 1.5 ohm

(4) 0.5 ohm

Question 3:

A photoelectric cell is illuminated by a point source of light 1 m away. When the source is shifted to 2 m then

1) each emitted electron carries one quarter of the initial energy
2) number of electrons emitted is half the initial number
3) each emitted electron carries half the initial energy
4) number of electrons emitted is a quarter of the initial number

Question 4:

The Kα X-ray emission line of tungsten occurs at λ = 0.021nm. The energy difference between K and L levels in this atom is about

1) 0.51MeV
2) 1.2MeV
3) 59keV
4) 13.6eV

Question 5:

The equivalent inductance of two inductances is 2.4 henry when connected in parallel and 10 henry when connected in series. The difference between the two inductances is:

1) 4 henry
2) 3 henry
3) 2 henry
4) 8 henry

Question 6:

Two coils A and B have mutual inductance 2×10⁻² henry. If the current in the primary is i=5sin(10πt)  then the maximum value of e.m.f. induced in coil B is:

1) πvolt
2) $$\dfrac {\pi}{2}volt$$
3) $$\dfrac {\pi}{3}volt$$
4) $$\dfrac {\pi}{4}volt$$

Question 7:

A plane electromagnetic wave of frequency 20 MHz travels through a space along x direction. If the electric field vector at a certain point in space is 6 V m⁻¹, what is the magnetic field vector at that point?

1) 2×10⁻⁸T
2) 1/ 2×10⁻⁸T
3) 2T
4) 1 / 2T

Question 8:

Function of a grid in a triode is :

(1) to increase plate voltage

(2) to decrease plate voltage

(3) to reduce the effect of space charge

(4) None

Question 9:

Charges +9Q and -4Q are placed as shown in figure. The point at which electric field intensity is zero at a distance from B on the line joining AB will be :

1) l
2) 3l
3) 9 / 4l?
4) 2l

Question 10:

What is the magnitude of a point charge which produces an electric field of 2N/C at a distance of 60cm? (1/4πε0=9×10⁹Nm²/C²)

1) 8×10⁻¹¹ coulomb
2) 2×10⁻¹¹ coulomb
3) 3×10⁻¹¹??????? coulomb
4) 6×10⁻¹¹??????? coulomb

Question 11:

Two planets of radii R₁ and R₂ have the same density. The ratio of their accelerations due to gravity at the surface is

1)  (R₂ /R₁)²
2) R₂ /R₁
3) (R₁ /R₂)²
4) R₁ /R₂

Question 12:

If the value of gravitational acceleration at a height h above the Earth's surface is the same as that at a depth d below the Earth's surface (with both h and d small compared to the Earth's radius R), then
 
 1) h = 2 d
 2) h = d
 3) h = d2 / R
 4) h = d / 2

Question 13:

In an elastic collision

1.Energy is conserved but momentum is not
2.Momentum is conserved but energy is not
3.Neither momentum nor energy is conserved
4.Both momentum and energy is conserved

Question 14:

A particle is projected from the ground level. It just passes through upper ends of vertical poles A, B, C of height 20 m, 30 m and 20 m respectively. The time taken by the particle to travel from B to C is double of the time taken from A to B. Find the maximum height attained by the particle from the ground level.
1) 15 m
2) 125/4 m
3) 45/4 m
4) none

Question 15:

The mass of O₂ molecules is 16 times that of H₂ molecules. The rms velocity of O₂ molecules at room temperature is Crms The rms velocity of H₂ molecules at the same temperature will be

1) 16 C_rms
2) 4 C_rms
3) C_rms / 4
4) C_rms / 16

Question 16:

What force is required to give a projectile weighing 450. N an acceleration of 500. m/s²?
 1) 5.6 E 4 N
 2) 2.3 E 4 N
 3) 1.6 E 4 N
 4) 8.7 E 4 N

Question 17:

An electric dipole is placed at an angle of 30^o with an electric field of intensity 2 × 10⁵NC⁻¹. It experiences a torque equal to 4 N mm. The charge on the dipole of the dipole length is 2 cm is

1) 8 mC
2) 4 mC
3) 6 mC
4) 2 mC

Question 18:

 A particle is confined to move in circular path with decreasing speed. Which of the following is correct.

(1)Angular momentum is constant

(2) Only the direction of L is constant

(3) Acceleration is always directed towards the centre

(4) Particle moves in spiral path.

Question 19:

A pendulum is hung from the roof of a sufficiently high building and is moving freely to and fro like a simple harmonic oscillator. The acceleration of the bob of the pendulum 20 m/s² at a distance of 5 m from the moving position. The time period of oscillation is?

1) 2s
2) 2πs
3) 1s
4) πs

Question 20:

 An isolated conductor will become polarized (in terms of charge) when:

(1) it is touched by a charged object.

(2) it is warmed.

(3) it is brought close to (but not touching) a charged object.

(4) it is charged with a power supply

Question 21:

On applying a stress of xN/m², the length of wire of some material gets doubled. Value of Young's modulus for the material of and wire in N/m², is (assume Hooke's law to be valid and go for approx. results)

1) 2x
2) x
3) x/2
4) Insufficient information

Question 22:

 An orange light ray and a green light ray pass from an acrylic block to air with the same angle of incidence of 45^o . The orange is less deflected because:

(1) the index of refraction in acrylic for green light is greater than that of orange.

(2) the index of refraction in acrylic for green light is less than that of orange.

(3) the indices of refraction of both colors are greater in air than in acrylic.

(4). the indices of refraction of both colors are greater in acrylic than in air.

Question 23:

The coefficient of volume expansion of glycerin is 34 ´ 10^–5 per °C. The fractional change in its density for a 30°C rise in temperature is:

1) 2.02 ´ 10^–2

2) 1.86 ´ 10^–2

3) 1.02 ´ 10^–2

4) 0.86 ´ 10^–2

Question 24:

A vertical smoked plate falls vertically under gravity and traces found by transverse vibrations of a fork show 10 complete vibrations in each of two consecutive lengths which differ by 1.8cm. The frequency of the fork is

1) 233.3 Hz
2) 333.3 Hz
3) 444.3 Hz
4) 555.3 Hz

Question 25:

Two marbles, one twice as heavy as the other, are dropped to the ground from the roof of a building. Just before hitting the ground, the heavier marble has:

1. Twice as much kinetic energy as the lighter one.

2. The same kinetic energy as the lighter one.

3. Four times as much kinetic energy as the lighter one.

4. Half as much kinetic energy as the lighter one.

Question 26:

A projectile is launched at a speed of 24 m/s. The parachute fails and the projectile falls (free fall) back to earth. What is the total time the projectile is in flight?

1) 4.9 s
2) 3.2 s
3) 8.6 s
4) 9.7 s

Question 27:

In the figure a block 'A' of mass 'm' is attached at one end of a light spring and the other end of the spring is connected to another block 'B' of mass 2m through a light string. 'A' is held and B has obtained equilibrium. Now A is released. The acceleration of A just after that instant is 'a'. The same thing is repeated for 'B'.
In that case the acceleration of 'B' is 'b', then value of a/b is: 

1) 0           2) ∞            3) 2             4) 1/2

Question 28:

Four identical planks each of lengths ‘L’ are arranged one above the other over a table as shown. Each projects a distance ‘a’ beyond the edge of the one that is below it. What is the maximum possible value of ‘a’ for the system to be in equilibrium without tripping forward?

1) L / 5
2) L / 4
3) L / 3
4) L

Question 29:

The figure shows a system of two concentric spheres of radii r₁ and r₂ and kept at temperatures T₁ and T₂ respectively. The radial rate of flow of heat in a substance between the two concentric spheres, is proportional to

Question 30:

When a neutral metal sphere is charged by contact with a positively charged glass rod, the sphere
 
 1) loses electrons
 2) gains electrons
 3) loses protons
 4) gains protons

Question 31:

 A ball is whirled around in a horizontal circle at constant speed v by a string of length r. How much work is done by the

string tension T during one complete revolution?

2. T·(2pr)

3. T·v

4. T· pr²

Question 32:

 A crate is pulled a distance d across the floor by a force F. There is a kinetic frictional force K between the crate and the floor. How much work is done on the crate by the frictional force?

1. Kd

Question 33:

 Two satellites A and B of the same mass are going around earth in concentric orbits. The distance of satellite B from Earth’s center is twice that of satellite A What is the ratio of the centripetal force acting on B to that acting on A?

1. 1/8              2. ¼

3. ½                 4. 1/Ö2

Question 34:

A particle moves in the xy-plane under the action of a force F such that the components of its linear momentum p at any time t are  p_x=2cos t, p_y=2sin t. The angle between F and p  at time t is
1) 90^o  2) 0^o  3) 180^o  4) 30^o

Question 35:

A force vector applied on a mass is represented as F^-> =6i^−8j^+10k^ and accelerates with 1m/s². What will be the mass of the body                                 
1) 10√2 kg    2) 2√10kg     3) 10 kg  4) 20 kg

Question 36:

A uniform rod of length L is suspended from one end such that it is free to rotate about anax is passing through that end and perpendicular to the length, what maximum angular speed must be imparted to the lower end so that the rod completes one full revolution?

1) √(g/l)  2) √(2g/l)    3) √(6g/l)     4) 2√(g/l) 

Question 37:

A ball of radius R rolls without slipping. Find the fraction of total energy associated with its rotational energy, if the radius of the gyration of the ball about an axis passing through its center of mass is K.

 

Question 38:

A composite string is made by joining two strings of different masses per unit length μ and 4μ. The composite string is under the same tension. A transverse wave pulse Y = (6 mm) sin (5t + 40x), where t is in seconds and x is in meters, is sent along the lighter string towards the joint. The joint is at x = 0. The equation of the wave pulse reflected from the joint is

1) Y = (2 mm) sin (5t – 10x)
2) Y = (4 mm) sin (40x – 5t)
3) Y = –(2 mm) sin (5t – 40x)
4) Y = (2 mm) sin (5 t – 40x)

Question 39:

Equations of a stationary and a travelling waves are as follows, $${ y }_{ 1 }=a\sin { kx } \cos { \omega t } $$ and $${ y }_{ 2 }=a\sin { \left( \omega t-kx \right)  }$$. The phase difference between two points $${ x }_{ 1 }=\dfrac { \pi  }{ 3k } $$ and $${ x }_{ 2 }=\dfrac { 3\pi  }{ 2k } $$ are $${ \phi  }_{ 1 }$$ and $${ \phi  }_{ 2 }$$ respectively for two waves. The ratio $$\dfrac { { \phi  }_{ 1 } }{ { \phi  }_{ 2 } } $$ is :

1) 1
2) $${ 5 }/{ 6 }$$
3) $${ 3 }/{ 4 }$$
4) $${ 6 }/{ 7 }$$

Question 40:

A spring scale reads 20. newtons as it pulls a 5.0-kilogram mass across a table. What is the magnitude of the force exerted by the mass on the spring scale?

1) 49 N
2) 20. N
3) 5.0 N
4) 4.0 N

Question 41:

How much work is done when a mass weighing 400N is lifted 3 meters?
 
 (1) 1200W
 (2) 403 Nm
 (3) 1200 J
 (4) None

Question 42:

A plane mirror is placed along the x-axis facing negative y-axis. The mirror is fixed. A point object is moving with $$3\hat{i} \, + \, 4\hat{j}$$ in front of the plane mirror. The relative velocity of image with respect to its object is

1) $$-8\hat{j}$$
2) $$8\hat{j}$$
3) $$3\hat{i} \, - \, 4\hat{j}$$
4) $$-6\hat{i}$$

Question 43:

The image of an object placed at 60cm in fromt of a lens is obtained on a screen at a distance of 120 cm from it. Find the local of the lens. what would be the height of the image if the object is 5cm high ?

1)  5cm
2) −10cm
3)  10cm
4) −20cm

Question 44:

  A kettle with 2 litre waters at 27ºC is heated by operating coil heater of power 1 kW. The heat is lost to the atmosphere at constant rate 160 J/sec when its lid is open. In how much time will water is heated to 77ºC (Sp heat of H2O = 4.2 kJ.mole )

(1)8 min 20 sec     (2) 6 min 2 sec     (3) 14 min     (4) 7 min

Question 45:

 A spherical body of emissivity e = 0.6, placed inside a perfectly black body is maintained at

temperature T then the energy radiated per second will be

(1)E = 0.4 eAT⁴         (2) E = 0.8 eAT⁴    

(3) E = 0.6 eAT⁴                 (4) E = 1.0eAT⁴

Question 46:

Which of the following is a linear polymer ?

 1) glycogen
2) amylopectin
3) amylose
4) starch.

Question 47:

The best and latest technique for isolation, purification, and separation of organic compounds is:

1) crystallisation

2) distillation

3) sublimation

4) chromatography

Question 48:

During the electrolysis of fused sodium chloride,the anodic reaction is :

1) Oxidation of sodium ions
2) reduction of sodium ions
3) oxidation of chloride ions
4) reduction of chloride ions 

Question 49:

NaCN is used in the extraction of

 1. iron
 2. copper
 3. magnesium
 4. gold.

Question 50:

Among the following : NaOH, Ca(OH)₂, KOH and Zn(OH)₂ The weakest base is

 1. NaOH
 2. Ca(OH)₂
 3. KOH
 4. Zn(OH)₂

Question 51:

Which one is not a mineral of sodium?

1)  Chile saltpeter

2)  Cryolite

3)  Petalite

4)  Rock salt

Question 52:

A solid X⁺Y^- has a bcc structure. If the distance of closest approach between the ions is 173 pm, the edge length of the cell is

1) √2 pm
2) (√3/2) pm
3) 200 pm
4) 400 pm

Question 53:

Density of Li atom is 0.53 g cm³. The edge length of Li is 3.5 Å. Find out the number of Li atoms in a unit cell. 
[Given: NA=6.02×10²³, M=6.94 g mol⁻¹]

1) 4
2) 2
3) 1
4) 3

Question 54:

The number of sodium atoms in 2 moles of sodium ferrocyanide is

1)  8 x 6.02 x 10²³

2)  4 x 6.02 x 10²³

3)  6.02 x 10²³

4)  2

Question 55:

An aqueous solution of non-electrolyte 'A' with molecular mass 60 contains 6 g in 500 ml and has a density equal to 1.05. The molality of solution is

1)  0.30

2)  0.25

3)  0.19

4)  1.25

Question 56:

When the temperature of an ideal gas is increased from 27⁰C to 927⁰C, the kinetic
energy will be:

 1) same
2) eight times
3) four times
4) twice

Question 57:

A sample of gas occupies 300 dm³ at 27^oC and 750 pressure. What contraction in volume takes place, when the gas is cooled to - 33^oC at 750 mm pressure?

1)  120 dm³

2)  240 dm³

3)  60 dm³

4)  No change in volume

Question 58:

What is the volume of 0. 1 N HCL required to react completely with 1.0g. of pure calcium carbonate ? (Ca=40, c=12 and O=16)

1) 250 cm³
2) 150 cm³
3) 100 cm³
4) 200 cm³

Question 59:

Volume of 0.6M NaoH is required to netralise 30cm³ of 0.4M HCl is

1. 4.5 cm³
2.  30 cm³
3.  20 cm³
4.  50 cm³ 
 

Question 60:

Which of the following statements is not applicable to chemisorption?

1) It is irreversible
2) It is independent of temperature
3) It is highly specific
4) It is slow.

Question 61:

A colloidal solution obtained by adding a mixture of stannous chloride and stannic chloride solution to a solution of gold chloride is known as

1)  cinna bar

2)  ruby

3)  fulminating gold

4)  purple of cassius

Question 62:

The change in entropy of an ideal gas during a reversible isothermal expansion is :

  1) Negative
2) Positive
3) Zero
4) infinity

Question 63:

Gibbs free energy G is defined as :

1) G = H - TS
2) G = H + TS
3) G = E + TS
4) G = E - TS

Question 64:

Amount of oxalic acid present in a solution can be determined by its titration with KMnO₄ solution in the presence of H₂SO₄. The titration gives unsatisfactory result when carried out in the presence of HCl, because HCl

1) gets oxidised by oxalic acid to chlorine
2) furnished H⁺ ions in addition to those from oxalic acid
3) reduces permanganate to Mn²⁺
4) Oxidation oxalic acid to carbon dioxide and water

Question 65:

25 mL of a solution of barium hydroxide on titration with 0.1 molar solution of hydrochloric acid gave titer value of 35 mL. The molarity of barium hydroxide solution was :

1) 0.07 

2) 0.14 

3) 0.28 

4) 0.35

Question 66:

pKa value for acetic acid at the experimental temperature is 5. The percentage hydrolysis of 0.1M sodium acetate solution will be

1) 1×10⁻⁴
2) 1×10⁻²
3) 1×10⁻³
4) 1×10⁻⁵

Question 67:

The solubility of CaF₂ (Ksp=5.3×10⁻⁹ ) in 0.1M solution of NaF would be : (Assume no reaction of cation/anion)

1) 5.3×10⁻¹⁰M
2) 5.3×10⁻⁸M
3) 5.3×10⁻⁷M
4) 5.3×10⁻¹¹M

Question 68:

If a mixture containing 3 moles of hydrogen and 1 mole of nitrogen is converted completely into ammonia, the ratio of initial and final volumes at the same temperature and pressure would be : 

1) 1:2
2) 2:1
3) 1:3
4) 3:1

Question 69:

Assuming complete ionisation, the pH of 0.1M HCl is 1. The molarity of H₂SO₄ with the same pH is:

1) 0.1
2) 0.05
3) 0.2
4) 2.0

Question 70:

Hydrolysis of benzonitrile by dilute HCl yields

1. aniline 
2. benzoldelyde 
3. benzoic acid 
4. benzaunide

Question 71:

Ethyl amine on oxidation in the presence of KMnO₄ gives

1)  an acid

2)  an N-oxide

3)  an alcohol

4)  an aldehyde

Question 72:

The colour of the flame in borron trifluoride test is :
 1) blue.
 2) crimson.
 3) golden yellow.
 4) green

Question 73:

The most efficient agent for the absorption of SO₃ is:

 1) 80% H₂S0₄.
2) 98% H₂S0₄.
3) 90% H₂S0₄.
4) 20% H₂S0₄

Question 74:

Paper chromatography is a type of partition chromatography. Select the correct alternative related to paper chromatography.

1) Moving phase is liquid and stationary phase is solid.

2) Moving phase is solid and stationary phase is liquid.

3) Both moving phase and stationary phase is liquid 

4) none of the above

Question 75:

Which of the following can be used to measure the decrease in concentration of aqueous reactants over time?

1) Paper chromatography.

2) Spectroscopy.

3) Pressure differences.

4) Reduced turbidity.

Question 76:

Identify the element which can have highest oxidation number

 1. C
 2. N
 3. O
 4. Cl

Question 77:

The oxidization state of nitrogen in N₃H is

1)  - 1/3

2)  + 1/2

3)  + 3

4)  - 1

Question 78:

Alkaline earth metals have only positive oxidation state. This is due to their:

1) high melting points
2) high electronegativity
3) softness
4) low ionization potential

Question 79:

The pair of amphoteric hydroxides is:

1) Al(OH)₃ and LiOH
2) B(OH)₃ and Be(OH)₂
3) Be(OH)₂ and Zn(OH)₂
4) Be(OH)₂ and Mg(OH)₂

Question 80:

The edge length of the unit cell of NaCl crystal lattice is 552 pm. If the ionic radius of sodium ion is 95 pm., what is the ionic radius of chloride ion ?

1) 368 pm
2) 190 pm
3) 276 pm
4) 181 pm

Question 81:

The number of atoms in one unit cell of a face centered cubic lattice is :

1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 4

Question 82:

A storage battery contains a solution of H_2?SO₄ ?38% by weight. What will be the Van't Hoff factor if the ΔT_f experiment? is 29.08.
[Given Kf?=1.86 mol−1Kg]

1) i=1.25
2) i=2.5 
3) i=3
4) i=3.5

Question 83:

Choose the correct increasing order of freezing points?

1) 0.1M NaCl < 0.05M BaCl₂ < 0.1M NH₂CSNH₂ < 0.025M KNO₃
2) 0.1M NH2CSNH₂ < 0.1M NaCl < 0.05M BaCl₂ < 0.025M KNO₃
3) 0.025M KNO₃ < 0.1M NH₂CSNH₂<0.05M BaCl₂<0.1M NaCl
4) 0.025M KNO₃ < 0.1M BaCl₂ < 0.1M NaCl < 0.1M NH₂CSNH₂

Question 84:

A bottle of cold drink contains 200 ml liquid in which CO₂ is 0.1 molar. Suppose CO₂ behaves like an ideal gas, the volume of the dissolved CO₂ at STP is

1) 0.224 litre
2) 0.448 litre
3) 22.4 litre
4) 2.24 litre

Question 85:

There are 6.02 ×10²² molecules each of N₂, O₂ and H₂ which are mixed together at 760 mm and 273K. The mass of the mixture in grams is 

1) 6.2
2) 4.12
3) 3.09
4) 7

Question 86:

Percentage of Se in peroxidase anhydrous enzyme is 0.5% by weight (at. wt. = 78.4) then minimum molecular weight of peroxidase anhydrous enzyme is
1) 1.568 × 10⁴
2) 1.568 × 10³
3) 15.68
4) 2.136 × 10⁴

Question 87:

Oxalic acid (H₂C₂O₄) is present in many plants and vegetables. If 24.0 mL of 0.01M KMnO4 solution is needed to titrate 1.0 g of H₂C₂O₄ to the equivalence-point, the mass percentage (as nearest integer) of H₂C₂O₄ in the sample is :
1) 3
2) 2
3) 5
4) 6

Question 88:

Which of the following represents soap?

1)  C₁₅H₃₁COOH

2)  (C₁₇H₃₅COO)₂Ca

3)  C₁₇H₃₅COOK

4)  C₁₇H₃₅COOH

Question 89:

A solution has positively charged colloidal particles. Which of the following solutions is required in lowest concentration for coagulation?

1)  Na₂SO₄

2)  ZnCl₂

3)  K₄[Fe(CN]₆

4)  NaCl

Question 90:

A gaseous mixture enclosed in a vessel of volume V consists of one mole of gas A with γ(=C_P/C_V)=5/3 and another gas B with γ = 7/5

at a certain temperature T. The relative molar masses of the gas A and B are 4 and 32 , respectively. The gases A and B do not react with each other and are assumed to be ideal. The gaseous mixture follows the equation PV^19/13=  constant, in adiabatic processes. Compute the speed of sound in the gaseous mixture at T=300 K.

1) v = 501m/s
2) v = 401m/s
3) v = 701m/s
4) v = 801m/s

Question 91:

Grave's disease is caused by hypersecretion of thyroid hormones and is associated with the

1. enlargement of the gland
2. increased BMR and increased nervous activity
3. exophthalamus
4. all of the above

Question 92:

Most mutations are harmful because:-

 1) They disturbed the genetic balance
 2) They are lethal
 3) They cause Phenotypic changes
 4) They produce biochemical effect

Question 93:

 Amnion is an extra embryonic membrane which develops during the embryonic development of

 1. Cockroach
 2. Lizard
 3. Toad
 4. Fish
 

Question 94:

Meroblastic cleavage is found in

1) Amphioxus
2) Birds
3) Frog
4) All mammals

Question 95:

Milkman's syndrome is

(1) Failure of reabsorption of phosphate

(2) Failure of absorption of lactose

(3) Failure of absorptjon of amino acids

(4) None of these

Question 96:

State of being left-handed in humans is called -

(1) Mancinism

(2) Manchette

(3) Manchineel

(4) None of these

Question 97:

The element which is an essential component of Chlorophyll molecule is

 1) Magnesium
 2) Zinc
 3) Manganese
 4) Iron

Question 98:

Which of the following essential amino acids is not found in corn meal?

(1) Alanine

(2) Glutamic acid

(3) Glycine

(4) Tryptophan

Question 99:

Y and y hypostatic alleles to the epistatic gene -

 1) C
 2) P
 3) W
 4) R

Question 100:

Chromosomes with genes ABCDEFGH becoming ABEDCFGH is due to

 1) Duplication
 2) Deletion
 3) Translocation
 4) Inversion

Question 101:

Which of the following is endogenous in origin?

 1) Leaf
 2) Stem
 3) Root
 4) Bud

Question 102:

Which part of Nepenthes is modified into pitcher?

 1) Midrib
 2) Stipule
 3) Petiole
 4) Lamina

Question 103:

Which of the following is also known as tigroid bodies?

(1) Nissl bodies
(2) Golgi bodies
(3) Mitochondria
(4) None of these

Question 104:

Nigra is associated with-

(1) Cerebellum
(2) Medulla oblongata
(3) Crus cerebri
(4) All the above

Question 105:

 Population with adjacent geographic ranges is called

(1) Allometry
(2) Sympatric
(3) Allopatric
(4) Parapatric

Question 106:

During Hatch-Slack pathway CO₂ is fixed in the

(1) Chloroplast of bundle sheath cells

(2) Mitochondria

(3) Ribosomes

(4) None of the above

Question 107:

The scientist who first demonstrated that the gas that green plants gave out during photosynthesis was oxygen, is

1) Joseph Priestley
2) Lavoisier
3) Blackman
4) Warburg

Question 108:

Potato poisoning is related with-

(1) Solanine
(2) Alanine
(3) Gluten
(4) None of these

Question 109:

Some cucurbits are bitter in taste because of the presence of-

(1) Tartaric acid

(2) Proteins in lower quantity

(3) Starch in high quantity

(4) Tetracyclic triterpenes

Question 110:

 The spores of Agaricus are

 1. telutospores
 2. conidiospores
 3. basidiospores
 4. ascospores

Question 111:

 Meiosis in Spirogyra occurs in

 1. Zygote
 2. Zygospore
 3. Germling
 4. Main body
 

Question 112:

In the dihybrid cross the kinds of gametes produced by F1 hybrid are

 1) YR,Yr, YR,yr
 2) YY, yy, RR,rr
 3) Yy, yr, yR,YR
 4) YR,Yr, yR,yr

Question 113:

What was the plant in which Batson and Punnett observed linkage of genes?

 1) Maize
 2) Sweet pea
 3) Beans
 4) Ground nut

Question 114:

In tissue culture technique, innoculum is a very

 1) small number of cells
 2) large number of tissues
 3) large number of cells
 4) small number of plasmids

Question 115:

Crossing over occurs after each homologues chromosome has

 1) Double
 2) Divide
 3) separated
 4) split

Question 116:

This cause semi-sterility in pollen & ovule

 1) reciprocal translocation
 2) substitution
 3) Duplication
 4) deletion

Question 117:

Of all the enzymes of Krebs cycle, the only one located on the inner membrane of the mitochondrion is

1) Fumarase
2) succinic dehydrogenase
3) aconitase
4) carboxylase

Question 118:

In which type of fruit the seed coat is fused with the pericarp

 1) Berry
 2) Drupe
 3) Legume
 4) Caryopsis

Question 119:

Hardening is a process by which

 1) making the callus hard
 2) Making the culture medium hard
 3) The plantlets are subjected to natural environmental condition
 4) None of the above

Question 120:

 Pseudo stratified epithelium is found in;

 1. Female reproductive system
 2. Blood vessels
 3. Passage of respiratory and male reproductive system
 4. Digestive tract

Question 121:

 Which of the following are not mesodermal in origin ?

 1. muscle, cartilage bone
 2. bone marrow, blood lymphoid tissue
 3. blood vessels, genital ducts ,kidneys
 4. thymus, trachea, bladder

Question 122:

Information on any one taxon can be taken out by:

1) Monographs.
2) Catalogues.
3) Flora.
4) Manuals.

Question 123:

Study the four statements (I-IV) given below and select the two correct ones out of them:
I. Definition of biological species was given by Ernst Mayr.
II. Photoperiod does not affect reproduction in plants.
III. Binomial nomenclature system was given by RH Whittaker.
IV. In unicellular organisms, reproduction is synonymous with growth.

The two correct statements are :
1) II and III.
2) III and IV.
3) I and IV.
4) I and II.

Question 124:

Which of the following tissues exercises most control of root pressure?

 1) Cortex
 2) Endodermis
 3)  Phloem
 4) Xylem

Question 125:

 Imbibition, diffusion & osmosis play an important role in

 1) Transpiration
 2) Respiration
 3) Photosynthesis
 4) Absorption of water

Question 126:

Which of the following is not a feature of meristematic tissue?

 1) Having a prominent nucleus
 2) Having differentiated cells
 3) Having isodiametrical cells
 4) The cells with dense cytoplasm

Question 127:

Which of the following cells do not have a nucleus?

 1) Sieve element
 2) Guard cells
 3) Companion cells
 4) Epidermal cells

Question 128:

Short and Garnham (1984) re associated with discovery of

1. Life cycle of malarial parasite
2. Oocyasts of malarial parasite in stomach of mosquito
3. Transmission of malaria by mosquitoes
4. Causing malaria by patients blood

Question 129:

Oviparous mammls belong to

1. Eutheria
2. Prototheria
3. Metatheria
4. Marsupialia

Question 130:

Which of the following combinations is correct for wheat?

1) Genus Triticum, family poaceae, order poales, class dicotyledonae.
2) Genus Triticum, family poaceae, order Sapindales, class monocotyledonae.
3) Genus Triticum, family poaceae, order poales, class monocotyledonae.
4) Genus Triticum, family anacardiaceae, order poales, class monocotyledonae.

Question 131:

Certain organisms possess specialized structures called heterocysts that help in fixing one of the gases from the atmosphere using the enzyme nitrogenase. Which group of organisms possess heterocysts?

1) Dinoflagellates
2) Euglenoid
3) Cyanobacteria
4) Archaebacteria

Question 132:

The process of separating an enzyme from the cells that have produced it in a fermenter, is called

1. Precipitation
2. Chromatography
3. Downstream processing
4. Electrophoresis

Question 133:

Which of the following amino acid is sulphur-bearing compound?

(1) Alanine
(2) Methionine
(3) Argenine
(4) Aspartic acid

Question 134:

Many bacteria that enter the circulatory system are engulfed and destroyed by

1) phagocytic white blood cells
2) pinocytic red blood cells
3) plasma
4) platelets

Question 135:

Ratio of volume of red blood corpuscles to plasma is expressed as

1) Haematocrit

2) Haemocytometer

3) Hematin

4) Haem percentage
 

Question 136:

In a diploid human cell, chromosome number is 46. What will be the chromosome number of each sperm after meiosis?

1) 16
2) 23
3) 46
4) 92

Question 137:

 In which of the following phases does the attached chiasmata get separated?

1) Metaphase I
2) Anaphase I
3) Telophase I
4) Cytokinesis I

Question 138:

 A 'Cell Nest' is seen in which one of the tissues?

1) Hyaline cartilage
2) Cancellous bone
3) Areolar tissue
4) Stratified squamous non-cornified epithelium

Question 139:

The cristae in mitochondria have been discovered by

1) R. Altmann
2) Kollicker
3) Benda
4) G.E. Palade

Question 140:

Folds of Kerckring are found in

1) wall of the stomach 
2) intestinal mucosa
3) liver
4) pancreas

Question 141:

The organ in the human body that has both voluntary and involuntary muscles is

1) trachea
2) oesophagus
3) lungs
4) heart

Question 142:

 The fossil of Archaeopteryx was recovered as

1) Cast          
2) Preserved specimen
3) Petrification
4) Rock impression
 

Question 143:

Which type of kidney is present in most vertebrate embryos?

(1) Pronephros
(2) Mesonephros
(3) Metanephros
(4) None of these

Question 144:

Sweat glands belong to the type

1) coiled tubular
2) compound tubular
3) compound saccular
4) simple tubular 
 

Question 145:

Secondary sexual characters such as growth of beard in man, breast development and soprano voice in females

1) are sex-linked 
2) are sex-influenced
3) are sex-limited
4) have nothing to do with chromosomes

Question 146:

 Typical vertebrae of frog are from :

 1. 1-7
 2. 3-7
 3. 2-8
 4. 2-9

Question 147:

Active uptake of minerals across the cell membrane requires

1) Cyclic AMP
2) Acetylcholine
3) ATP
4) Chloramphenicol

Question 148:

One of the following is a co-enzyme

1) Tyrosinase
2) Trypsin
3) Nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide
4) Porphyrin

Question 149:

Chromosomes with genes ABCDEFGH becoming ABEDCFGH is due to

 1) Duplication
 2) Deletion
 3) Translocation
 4) Inversion

Question 150:

Deletion of chromosomal mutation is observed in

 1) Summer squash
 2) Chlamydomones
 3) Maize
 4) Sweet Pea

Question 151:

Epiphytic roots are covered by a tissue

 1) Parenchyma
 2) Collenchyma
 3) Velamen
 4) Chlorenchyma

Question 152:

Which of the following is endogenous in origin?

 1) Leaf
 2) Stem
 3) Root
 4) Bud

Question 153:

Modified sweat glands at the border of eyelids are called-

(1) Moll's gland
(2) Perineal gland
(3) Ceruminous gland
(4) None of these

Question 154:

The factors involved in the conduction of a nerve impulse through the nervous system are

1) Acetylcholine, Electrical polarity
2) Ca ++, Hormones, Dopamine
3) Mg ++ , Neurohormones, Co-enzymes
4) Pepsin, K ++, Cofactors

Question 155:

The usual sites of auxin formation in higher plants

 1) meristems
 2) enlarging tissues
 3) enlarging young leaves
 4) all the three

Question 156:

Ripening of fruits is hastened by

 1) Auxin

 2) Ethylene

 3) Gibberellic acid

 4) Cytokinins

Question 157:

Into how many groups plant are classified on the basis of life span and the nature of reproduction?

 1) 5
 2) 4
 3) 2
 4) 3

Question 158:

Flowers which cannot be cut into two equal halves along any plane

 1) Irregular and zygomorphic
 2) Irregular and asymmetrical
 3) Regular and asymmetrical
 4) None of these.

Question 159:

The phenotypic ratio of dihybrid Test cross after coupling will be

 1) 1 : 7 : 7 : 1
 2) 7 :1 :1 : 7
 3) 1 : 1 : 1 : 1
 4) 7 : 1 : 7: 1

Question 160:

CCpp x ccPP

 1) CCPP
 2) CcPp
 3) Ccpp
 4) ccpp

Question 161:

A type of aneuploidy, marked by the chromosome number of 2n + 2 is termed

1) Nullisomy
2) Monosomy
3) Trisomy
4) Tetrasomy

Question 162:

A normally pigmented but taste-blind woman whose father was an albino taster married an albino taster whose mother was taste-blin4) The offspring of the couple is likely to consist of

 1) all albino taste-blind
 2) all pigmented tasters
 3) half albino and taste-blind and half pigmented and tasters
 4) albino tasters, albino taste-blind, pigmented tasters and pigmented taste-blind

Question 163:

Which of the following features is used to identify a male cockroach from a female cockroach ?

1) Presence of a boat shaped sternum on the 9th abdominal segment
2) Presence of caudal styles
3) Forewings with darker tegmina
4) Presence of anal cerci

Question 164:

Ground substance of cartilage consist of proteoglycans, some lipid, collagen. The carbohydrates are glycosaminoglycans and include

1) Chondroitin sulphate
2) Hyaluronic acid
3) Keratan sullphate
4) All of the above

Question 165:

Net yield of ATP molecules in aerobic respiration during Krebs cycle per glucose molecule is

1) 2 ATP molecules

2) 8 ATP molecules

3) 36 ATP molecules

4) 38 ATP molecules

Question 166:

Taxonomically, which of the following set is matched correctly?

1) Cattle fish, jelly fish, silver fish
2) Bat, pigeon, kite
3) Lobsters, spider,shrimps
4) Oyster, otter, Octopus

Question 167:

The water lost by plants in the form of vapour is

 1) 60%
 2) 90%
 3) 50%
 4) 95%

Question 168:

The abundance of water in plant cells and its high specific heat is essential for :

 1) Absorption of more water
 2) Disposal of solar energy in excess
 3) Disposal of excess water
 4) To increase rate of photosynthesis

Question 169:

The gritty nature of Pear fruit felt during chewing is due to

 1) Parenchyma
 2) Collenchyma
 3) Chlorenchyma
 4) Sclereids

Question 170:

Which of the following is wrong?
 
 1) When Cambium is present the vascular bundle is open
 2) Bundle cap is formed of schlerenchyma
 3) The Cambium of the vascular bundle is called Inter fascicular Cambium
 4) The xylem in the Stem is endarch

Question 171:

Bombay duck is a

 1) marine edible fish found off the coast of Maharashtra
 2) freshwater edible fish endemic to the ponds and lakes of Maharashtra
 3) culinary preparation in Maharashtrian homes
 4) snail found in the backwaters of Mahim coast

Question 172:

Animal capable of both pulmonary and gill respiration is

1) Pila
2) Sepia
3) Octopus
4) Freshwater mussel

Question 173:

In Fabaceae diadelphous [(5)+(5)] condition is seen in the plant

 1) Hibiscus
 2) Clitoria
 3) Aeschynomene
 4) Crotalaria

Question 174:

Read the statements given below and identify the correct ones:
(i) Chemotaxonomy is based on the similarities and dissimilarities in the structure of certain chemical compounds among the organism.
(ii) Karyotaxonomy is based on the nuclear and chromosomal studies.
(iii) Term taxonomy was coined by Linnaeus.
(iv) ICBN is for the nomenclature of bacteria.
1) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct.
2) (i) and (ii) are correct.
3) (iii) and (iv) are correct.
4) (i) and (iii) are correct.

Question 175:

Calmodulin is-

(1) Amino acid
(2) Hormone
(3) Protein
(4) Lipid

Question 176:

The occurrence of glycogen is common to the cells of

1) Blue-green algae, green algae, and higher plants
2) Bacteria, animals and fungi
3) Animals and fungi
4) Green algae, animals and bacteria

Question 177:

Which of the following stage of M-phase is considered as tetraploid stage?

1) Anaphase of mitosis
2) Anaphase-I of meiosis
3) Metaphase-II of meiosis
4) none

Question 178:

At which phase of meiosis, the two cells, each with separated sister chromatids move towards opposite poles?

1) Metaphase-I
2) Metaphase-II
3) Anaphase-I
4) Anaphase-Ii

Question 179:

Circumfluence is used for taking in food material which is

1) motile
2) non-motile
3) a liquid
4) a fat drop
 

Question 180:

The circulation of food vacuoles occurs due to

1) control by the nucleus
2) Brownian movement
3) streaming movements of the cytoplasm called cyclosis
4) active transport