Question 1:

The equation of a simple harmonic wave is given by y=6sin2π(2t−0.1x), where x and y are in mm and t is in seconds. The phase difference between two particles 2mm apart at any instant is

1) 18^o
2) 36^o
3) 54^o
4) 72^o

Question 2:

How many kilowatts are required to raise a weight of 25 N a distance of 8.0 m in 2.5 minutes?
 1) 1.33 E - 3 kW
 2) 2.63 E - 2 kW
 3) 1.86 E 2 kW
 4) 3.35 E -5 kW

Question 3:

Figure shows the volume (V) vs Temperature (T) graphs for certain amount of perfect gas at two pressure P1 and P2 Then.

1) P1=P2
2) P1 > P2
3) P1 < P2
4) P1 ≥ P2

Question 4:

In Young's double slit experiment,the angular position of a point on the central maxima whose intensity is one fourth of maximum intensity

1) sin⁻¹(λ/d)    
2) sin⁻¹(λ/2d)  
3) sin⁻¹(λ/3d)    
4) sin⁻¹(λ/4d)

Question 5:

The work done in increasing the radius of a soap bubble from 4 cm to 5 cm is ................Joule.(given surface tension of soap water to be 25×10−3N/m)

1) $$0.5657 \times 10^{-3}$$
2) $$5.657 \times 10^{-3}$$
3) $$56.5 \times 10^{-3}$$
4) $$565 \times 10^{-3}$$

Question 6:

A concave mirror is placed over a beaker containing water of (µ = 1.33) and image of the object placed at the bottom of beaker is formed at a distance of 25 cm from the top then focal length of the mirror is

Question 7:

 Concave and convex lenses are placed touching each other. The ratio of magnitudes of their power is

2 : 3. The focal length of the system is 30 cm. Then the focal lengths of individual lenses are

(1)–75, 50         (2) –15, 10

(3) 75, 50         (4) 75, –50

Question 8:

A source of sound S emitting waves of frequency 100 Hz and an observer O are located at some distance from each other. The source is moving with a speed of 19.4 ms^-1 at an angle of 60° with the source observer line as shown in the figure. The observer is at rest. The apparent frequency observed by the observer (velocity of sound in air 330 ms^-1)is :-


1) 97 Hz
2) 100 Hz
3) 103 Hz
4) 106 Hz

Question 9:

A source of sound S emitting waves of frequency 100 Hz and an observer O are located at some distance from each other. The source is Find the time period of oscillations of a torsional pendulum, if the torsional constant of the wire is K = 10π²J/rad. The moment of inertia of rigid body is 10 Kg m² about the axis of rotation.

1) 2 sec
2) 4 sec
3) 16 sec
4) 8 sec

Question 10:

 Which of the following group have different dimension

(1)    Potential difference, EMF., Voltage    

(2) Pressure, stress, young's modulus

(3) Heat, energy, Work done                    

(4) Dipole moment, Electric flux, Electric field.

Question 11:

After a certain time, a radio active sample contains 2 x10²⁰  atoms and disintegration  rate  is  3 x10¹⁰  atom per sec  . when 2 x10¹⁵  atoms are Left to decay  its disintegation  rate will be 

1)  3  x 10⁵ atom/ s
2)  3  x 10¹⁰ atom/ s
3)  6.6  x 10⁵ atom/ s
4)  2 x 10² atom/ s

Question 12:

An electric current of 5A is passed through a circuit containing 3 wires arranged in parallel. If the length and radii of the wires are in the ratio 2 : 3 : 4 and 3 : 4 : 5, then the ratio of current passing through the wires would be

1) 54 : 64 : 75
2) 9 : 16 : 25
3) 4 : 9 : 16
4) 3 : 6 : 10

Question 13:

Two cells are of the same emf. Their internal resistances are r₁ and r₂. They are connected in series across a resistor of resistance R. If the terminal potential difference across the cell of internal resistance r₁ is zero, then the value of R will be

1) r₁ + r₂
2) r₁ - r₂
3) r₂ - r₁
4)  r₁ . r₂/(r₁ + r_{2 )}

Question 14:

When the current changes from + 2 A to -2 A in 0.05 s, an emf of 8V is induced in a coil. The coefficient of self induction of the coil is

1) 0.2 H 
2) 0.4 H
3) 0.8 H
4) 0.1 H

Question 15:

 A 60W light bulb emits spherical electromagnetic waves uniformly in all directions. If 50 percent of the power input to such a light bulb is emitted as electromagnetic radiation, what is the radiation intensity at a distance of 2:00 m from the light bulb?

1) 4:8W/m²
2) 1:2W/m²
3) 2:4W/m²
4) 0.6W/m²  

Question 16:

When a plane electromagnetic wave travels in vaccum, the average electric energy density is given by (Eo is the amplitude of the electric field) 

Question 17:

Find the amplitude of the electric field in a parallel beam of light of intensity 2.0 W/m²

1) 288 N/C
2) 38.8 N/C
3) 3.88 N/C
4) 8.8 N/C

Question 18:

Speeds of two identical cars are u and 4u at a specific instant. The ratio of the respective distances at which the two cars are stopped from that instant is :

1) 1 : 1 2) 1 : 4  3) 1 : 8 4) 1 : 16

Question 19:

The position of a projectile launched from the origin at t=0  is given by  at t=2s If the projectile was launched at an angle θ from the horizontal, then θ is (take g=10m/s²).

1) tan ^-1 2 / 3    2) tan ^-1 3 / 2  3) tan ^-1 7 / 4  4) tan ^-1 4 / 5 

Question 20:

A car is standing 200m behind a bus, which is also at rest. The two start moving at the same instant but with different forward accelerations. The bus has acceleration 2m/s² and the car has acceleration 4 m/s². The car will catch up with the bus after at time of -

1)  ?110  S     2) ?120 s     3) 10 ?2  s     4) 15 s

Question 21:

A mass of M kg is suspended by a weightless string. The horizontal force that is require to displace it until the string makes an angle of 45° with the initial vertical direction is

1) Mg ( √2 + 1)
2) Mg √2
3) Mg /  √2
4) Mg ( √2 - 1) 

Question 22:

A toy airplane that is flying at 3.00 m/s speeds up to 19.0 m/s in 2.20 seconds due to a force of 6.95 E 2 N. Using this information what is the mass of the toy?

1) 7.27 g
2) 95.6 g
3) 38.2 g
4) 14.8 g

Question 23:

An engineer is designing a conveyor system for loading lay bales into a wagon. Each bale is 0.25 m wide, 0.50 m high, and 0.80 m long
(the dimension perpendicular to the plane of the figure), with mass 30.0 kg. The center of gravity of each bale is at its geometrical center. The coefficient of static friction between a bale and the conveyor belt is 0.60, and the belt moves with constant speed. The angle β  of the conveyor is slowly increased. At some critical angle a bale will tip (if it doesn’t slip first), and at some different critical angle it will slip (if it doesn’t tip first). Find the second critical angle (In the same conditions) at which it slips
 

1) β = tan^-1 0.50
2) β = tan^-1 0.60
3) β = tan^-1 0.12
4)  β = tan^-1 0.70 

Question 24:

Two short bar magnets of length 1 cm each have magnetic moments 1.20 Am² and 1.00 Am² respectively. They are placed on a horizontal table parallel to each other with their N poles pointing towards the south. They have a common magnetic equator and are separated by a distance of 20.0 cm. The value of the resultant horizontal magnetic induction at the mid-point O of the line joining their centres is close to (Horizontal component of earth’s magnetic induction is 3.6x10^-5 Wb/m²)

1) 3.50 x 10^-4 Wb/m²
2) 5.80 x 10^-4 Wb/m²
3) 3.6 x10^-5 Wb/m²
4) 2.56 x10^-4 Wb/m²

Question 25:

A cylinder of height 20 m is completely filled with water. The velocity of efflux of water (in ms^-1) through a hole on the side wall of the cylinder near its bottom, is

1) 10
2) 20
3) 25.5
4) 5

Question 26:

Two discs of same moment of inertia rotating about their regular axis passing through centre and perpendicular to the plane of disc with angular velocities ω₁ and ω₂. They are brought into contact face to face coinciding the axis of rotation. The expression for loss of energy during this process is 

Question 27:

A horizontal plank of mass m is lying on a smooth horizontal surface. A sphere of same mass and radius r is spinned to an angular frequency ω₀ and gently placed on the plank with its axis horizontal as shown in the figure. If coefficient of friction between the plank and sphere is μ. The distance moved by the plank till the sphere starts pure rolling on the plank. The plank is long enough. 

1)    2)   3)   4) 

Question 28:

Two parallel discs are connected by a rigid rod of length L=0.5 centrally. Each disc has a slit oppositely placed as shown in the figure. A beam of neutral atoms are incident on one of the discs axially at different velocities v, while the system is rotated at angular speed of 600 rev/second so that atoms only with a specific velocity emerge at the other end. Calculate the two largest speeds(in meter/second) of the atoms that will emerge at the other end.

1) 75,25    2) 100,50    3) 300,100  4) 600,200

Question 29:

A long cylindrical pipe of radius 20 cm is closed at its upper end and has an airtight piston of negligible mass as shown. When a 50 Kg mass is attached to the other end of piston, it moves down by a distance Δl before coming to equilibrium. Assuming air to be an ideal gas, Δl/L (see figure) is close to (g=10m/s², atmospheric pressure is 10⁵ Pascal).   

1) 0.01            2) 0.02        3) 0.04        4) 0.09 

Question 30:

A spherical ball of mass 20 kg is stationary at the top of a hill of height 100 m. It rolls down a smooth surface to the ground, then climbs up another hill of height 30 m and finally rolls down to a horizontal base at a height of 20 m above the ground. The velocity attained by the ball is 

1)  20 m/s
2)  40 m/s
3)  10√30 m/s
4)  10 m/s 

Question 31:

A stone is projected at time t = 0 with a speed V₀ and an angle θ  with the horizontal in a uniform gravitational field. The rate of work done (P) by the gravitational force plotted against time (t) will be as

Question 32:

At a given instant there are 25% undecayed radioactive nuclei in a sample. After 10 seconds the number of undecayed nuclei reduces to 12.5%. The mean - life of the nuclei is:
1. 12.5 s
2. 12.98 s
3. 13.54 s
4. 14.43 s

Question 33:

A diode can convert
1. ac to dc
2. dc to ac
3.ac to dc and vice versa
4.None of the above

Question 34:

When a ray of light enters a glass slab from air
1. Its wavelength increase
2. No change in frequency & wavelength
3. Its frequency increases
4. No change in frequency & wavelength

Question 35:

In an elastic collision
1.Energy is conserved but momentum is not
2.Momentum is conserved but energy is not
3.Neither momentum nor energy is conserved
4.Both momentum and energy is conserved

Question 36:

1. Two planets of radii R₁ and R₂ have the same density. The ratio of their accelerations due to gravity at the surface is

1)  (R₂ /R₁)²
2) R₂ /R₁

3) (R₁ /R₂)²
4) R₁ /R₂

Question 37:

 A guitar string oscillates with a fundamental frequency of 200 Hz. What is the fundamental frequency if you increase the mass per unit length of this string by a factor of 4 while keeping the tension constant?

1) 50 Hz

2) 100 Hz

3) 200 Hz

4) 400 Hz

Question 38:

An infinite long cylindrical conducting wire is kept parallel to uniform magnetic field along positive Zaxis.

Question 39:

At a given instant there are 25% undecayed radioactive nuclei in a sample. After 10 seconds the number of undecayed nuclei reduces to 12.5%. The mean - life of the nuclei is:
1. 12.5 s
2. 12.98 s
3. 13.54 s
4. 14.43 s

Question 40:

A diode can convert
1. ac to dc
2. dc to ac
3.ac to dc and vice versa
4.None of the above

Question 41:

Light of wavelength $$\displaystyle \lambda $$ from a point source falls on a small circular obstacle of diameter $$'d'$$. Dark and bright circular rings around a central bright spot are formed on a screen beyond the obstacle. The distance between the screen and obstacle is $$D$$. Then, the condition for the formation of rings is:

1) $$\displaystyle \lambda \approx \frac { { d }^{ 2 } }{ 4D } $$
2) $$\displaystyle d\approx \frac { { \lambda }^{ 2 } }{ D } $$
3) $$\displaystyle \lambda \approx \frac { D }{ 4 } $$
4) $$\displaystyle \sqrt { \lambda } =\frac { d }{ 4D } $$

Question 42:

When the speed of electron beam used in Young’s double slit experiment is increased, then which among the following statement is correct

Question 43:

 The speed of sound in air is 343 m/s. What is the wavelength of a sound wave with a frequency of 686 Hz?

1) 4 m

2) 2 m

3) 1 m

4) 0.5 m

Question 44:

A commonly used lens coating material is MgF₂ with n=1.38.. Find the thickness of non-reflective coating, one shall have for 550nm light if it is applied to glass  of n=1.52.

1) 400nm
2) 200nm
3) 300nm
4) 100nm

Question 45:

A microscope is focused on a coin lying at the bottom of a beaker. The microscope is now raised up by 1 cm. to what depth should the water be poured into the beaker so that coin is again in focus? (Refractive index of water is 4 / 3)

1) 4 cm
2) 4 / 3 cm
3) 3 cm
4) 1 cm

Question 46:

Polarization is the distortion of the shape of an anion by an adjacently placed cation. Which of the following statements is correct?

1)  Polarizing power of cation is less than that of anion

2)  A large cation is likely to bring about a large degree of polarization

3)  Maximum polarization is brought about by a cation of high charge

4)  Minimum polarization is brought about a large degree of polarization

Question 47:

When a sample of NO(g) (11.75 mol) is placed in 440.0 L reaction vessel at 882.0 K and allowed to come to equilibrium the mixture contains 79.86 grams of N₂(g). What is the concentration (mol/L) of N₂(g)?

1) 5.480×10⁻³ mol/L
2) 6.480×10⁻³ mol/L
3) 2.851×10⁻³ mol/L
4) 2.480×10⁻³ mol/L

Question 48:

Equilibrium constant for the reaction:
Ag⁺ + 2CN^- ? [Ag(CN)2]^-
at 25^oC is 2.5 × 10¹⁸. Calculate silver ion concentration (in terms of 10^-17 M) in a solution  which was originally 0.10 M in KCN and 0.03 M in AgNO₃.

1) 0.75
2) 1.85
3) 0.61
4) 1.24

Question 49:

For the reaction A ® B, the rate increases by a factor of 2.25 when the concentration of A is increased by 1.5. What is the order of the reaction ?

1) 0
2) 3
3) 1
4) 2

Question 50:

The reaction 2N₂O₅ <--> 4NO₂ + O₂ follows Ist order kinetics. Hence the molecularity of reaction is

 1. unimoleqular.
 2. pseudo unimoleqular
 3. bimoleqular.
 4. none of these.

Question 51:

When sodium stearate CH3(CH2)16COONa, is added to hard water the formula of one possible precipitate is:

1) (CH₃(CH₂)₁₆COO)₂Ca

2) (CH₃(CH₂)₁₆COO)₂Ba

3) (CH₃(CH₂)₁₆COO)₂Cd

4) CH₃(CHv)₁₆COOK

Question 52:

In reference to biological role, Ca²⁺ ions are important in

1) triggering the contraction of muscles

2) generating the right electrode potential across cell membrane

3) hydrolysis of ATP

4) defence mechanism

Question 53:

Within a specified period, an increase in atomic number is usually accompanied by:

1. an increase in atomic radius and an increase in electronegativity.
2. a decrease in atomic radius and an increase in electronegativity.
3. an increase in atomic radius and a decrease in electronegativity.
4. a decrease in atomic radius and a decrease in electronegativity.

Question 54:

The long form of the periodic table has _______ periods, and _______vertical columns.

 1) 6;8
2) 6;18
3) 8;12
4) 7;18

Question 55:

Atomic number of Cr and Fe are respectively 25 and 26. Which of the following is paramagnetic with the spin of the electron

1) [Cr(CO)_6]
2) [Fe(CO)₅]
3) [Fe(CN)₆]^4-
4) [Cr(NH₃)₆]³⁺

Question 56:

The effective atomic number of iron in [Fe(CN)₆]^3- is
1) 34
2) 36
3) 37
4) 35

Question 57:

Iron pipes laying under acidic soil are often attached to blocks of magnesium for protection form rusting. Magnesium offers protection to iron against Corrosion because it

1) is lighter than iron.
2) is more readily converted into positive ions.
c )prevents air from reaching the surface of iron.
4) form a corrosion-resistant ally  with iron.

Question 58:

Silica is added to roasted copper ore during smelting in order to remove:

1) cuprous oxide
2) cuprous sulphide
3) ferrous sulphide
4) ferrous oxide

Question 59:

The electrolysis of aqueous solution of CuBr₂ using platinum electrode would leads to:

1) Cu at anode
2) Br₂ gas at anode and O₂ gas at cathode
3) Cu at cathode
4) H₂ gas at cathode

Question 60:

In producing chlorine through electrolysis 100 watt power at 125 V is being consumed. How much chlorine per minute is liberated ? Electrochemical Equivalent of chlorine is 0.367 × 10⁻⁶  kg/coulomb:

1) 21.3 mg
2) 17.6 mg
3) 24.3 mg
4) 13.6 mg

Question 61:

Plastics being developed from eco-friendly renewable sources, plus some modern plastics are biodegradable is one of the achievements of

1) Waste management

2) Green revolution

3) Revolution resource recovery

4) Green chemistry

Question 62:

Which one of these statements are incorrect for pesticides?

1) They are easily bio-degradable

2) They bring toxic effects on humans and animals

3) They decrease the fertility of soil

4) They are quite stable

Question 63:

STATEMENT-1 : Silver extraction is done by dissolving its ore into cyanide solution.
STATEMENT-2 : In cyanide process, the silver is precipitated from soluble complex of silver of zinc-dust.

1) STATEMENT-1 is True, STATEMENT-2 is True; STATEMENT-2 is a correct explanation for STATEMENT-1
2) STATEMENT-1 is True, STATEMENT-2 is True; STATEMENT-2 is NOT a correct explanation for STATEMENT-1
3) STATEMENT-1 is True, STATEMENT-2 is False
4) STATEMENT-1 is False, STATEMENT-2 is True

Question 64:

$$Ag_2S + NaCN \longrightarrow (A), (A) + Zn \longrightarrow  (B)$$
(B) is a metal. Hence (A) and (B) are: 

1) $$Na_2[Zn(CN)_4],Zn$$
2) $$Na_2[Ag(CN)_2],Ag$$
3) $$Na_2[Ag(CN)_4],Ag$$
4) $$Na_3[Ag(CN)_4],Ag$$

Question 65:

Which hydrocarbon is formed by the action of sodium on ethyl bromide?

1) Methane
2) Ethane
3) Butane
4) isobutane.

Question 66:

When chlorine reacts with ethyl alcohol, it forms:

1) chloral
2) chloroform
3) ethyl chloride
4) carbon tetrachloride.

Question 67:

The ease of nitration of the following three hydrocarbons follows the order.

1) II =III =I
2) III > II > I
3) II > III > I
4) I = III > II

Question 68:

Arrange the following in decreasing order of reactivity towards EAS: (electrophilic aromatic substitution) 

1) a > b > c
2) a > c > b
3) c > a > b
4) c > b > a

Question 69:

In which of the compounds does hydrogen have an oxidation state of - 1?

1)  CaH₂

2)  HCl

3)  NH₃

4)  CH₄

Question 70:

Hydrogen gas is liberated by the action of aluminium with a concentrated solution of

1) NaHCO₃
2) Na₂CO₃
3) NaOH
4) none of these

Question 71:

Which of the following arrangement of molecules is correct on the basis of their dipole moments?

1) BF₃ > NF₃ > NH₃
2) NH₃ > BF₃ > NH₃
3) NH₃=NF₃ > BF₃
4) NH₃ > NF₃ > BF₃

Question 72:

Buffer solution can be obtained by the mixing aqueous solutions of:

1) CH₃COONa and CH₃COOH
2) CH₃COOH and excess NaOH
3) CH3₃COONa and excess HCl
4) NaCl and HCl.

Question 73:

   Which description applies to the reaction above?

          AlCl₃ + Cl^- -----> AlCl₄^-

        1) amphotorism
        2) anion hydrolysis
        3) Arrhenius neutralization
        4) Lewis acid-base reaction

Question 74:

The solubility of K₂SO₄ in water is 16 g per 100 mL at 50^oC. The least weight of water that will dissolve 4 g of this substance at the same temperature is

1)  25 g

2)  10 g

3)  50 g

4)  75 g

Question 75:

The table below shows recorded concentration data for the following chemical reaction:
$$CaCl_{2}(aq) + 2AgNO_{3}(aq) \rightarrow Ca(NO_{3})_{2} (aq) + 2AgCl(s)$$
Use the data to determine the exponents $$x$$ and $$y$$ in the rate law:
$$rate = k[CaCl_{2}]^{x} [AgNO_{3}]^{y}$$

1) x = 2, y = 3
2) x = 1, y = 2
3) x = 1, y = 1
4) x = 2, y = 2

Question 76:

1 grams of a sample ⁴²K remained unchanged after 6262 hours. What was the original mass of the sample 4⁴²K, if the half life is 12.4 hours?

1) 64 grams
2) 32 grams
3) 8 grams
4) 16 grams

Question 77:

Which of the following is used for inducing sleep ? 

1) chloroquine
2) paracetamol
3) barbituric acid derivatives.
4) bithional

Question 78:

Successive ionization potentials of a metallic element 'M' are 520 kJ, 7300 kJ, 10100 kJ, 13500 kJ respectively. Identify the formulae of compounds when it combines with non-metals X and Y.  'X' contains 7 electrons in valence 'M' shell and 'Y' contains 6 electrons in valence 'N' shell.

1) M₂X, MY 
2) MX₂, MY₂
3) MX, MY
4) MX, M₂Y

Question 79:

K⁺, Cl⁻, Ca²⁺, and  S²⁻ ions are isolelectronics. The decreasing order of their size is :

1) S²⁻ > Cl⁻ > K⁺ > Ca²⁺ 
2) Ca²⁺ > K⁺ > Cl− > S²⁻
3) K⁺ > Cl⁻ > Ca²⁺ > S²⁻
4) Cl⁻ > S²⁻ > Ca²⁺ > K⁺

Question 80:

The order of ease of oxidation of the ions F⁻, OH−, Br⁻ ,$${SO}_{4}^{2-}$$ is:

1) $${SO}_{4}^{2-}<{Br}^{-}<{OH}^{-}< {F}^{-}$$ 
2) $${SO}_{4}^{2-}> {F}^{-}> {Br}^{-}> {OH}^{-}$$
3) $${SO}_{4}^{2-}< {F}^{-}< {Br}^{-}< {OH}^{-}$$
4) $${OH}^{-}< {Br}^{-}< {F}^{-}< {SO}_{4}^{2-}$$

Question 81:

The co-ordination number of a metal in co-ordination compounds is:

1) sum of primary and secondary   valencies
2) same as the oxidation number of the  central metal atom
3) same as primary valenecy
4) same as secondary valency

Question 82:

The number of ions formed when cuprammonium sulphate dissolves in water is

 1. one
 2. two
 3. four
 4. zero

Question 83:

Aqueous solution of a metallic nitrate X reacts with NH₄OH to form Y which dissolves in excess NH₄OH. The resulting complex is reduced by acetaldehyde to deposit the metal. X and Y, respectively, are:

1) Cs(NO₃) and CsOH
2) Zn(NO₃)₂ and ZnO
3) AgNO₃ and Ag₂O
4) Mg(NO₃) and Mg(OH)₂

Question 84:

If each one of the above ionic species is in turn kept in a magnetic field, which one will get attracted ?

1) $$Co^{+2}$$ 
2) $$Mn^{+7}$$
3) $$Sc^{+3}$$
4) $$Ti^{+4}$$

Question 85:

Transition metals are less reactive than alkali metals because they have:

1) high ionisation potential and low melting point
2) high ionisation potential and high melting point
3) low ionisation potential and low melting point
4) low ionisation potential and high melting point

Question 86:

In electro-refining of copper some gold is deposited as :

1) Electrolyte
2) Cathode
3) Cathode mud
4) Anode mud

Question 87:

The standard free energies of formation of H₂O(l),CO₂(g) an n-pentane are −237.2kJ, −394.4kJ, −8.2kJ. Then the value of E₀ for pentane-oxygen fuel cell is:

1) 1.1V
2) 0.1V
3) 2.0V
4) 2.3V

Question 88:

What would you observe if you set up the following electrochemical cell Ag|Agno₃(0.001M)||AgNO₃(1M)|Ag

1) Electrons will flow from left to right, causing an increase in the [Ag+] concentration in the left cell, and a decrease in the [Ag+] concentration in the right cell.
2) Electrons will flow from right to left, causing an increases in the [Ag+]concentration in the left cell and a decrease in the [Ag+] concentration in the right cell.
3) Electrons will flow from left to right, causing a decrease in the [Ag+] concentration in the right cell.
4) Electrons will flow from right to left, causing a decrease in the [Ag+] concentration in the right cell

Question 89:

Oil refineries, paper factories, textile and sugar mills, chemical factories are responsible for water pollution.These industries discharge harmful chemicals into revers and streams, and pollute water. The chemicals released include

1) arsenic

2) lead

3) fluorides

4) all of the above

Question 90:

 Which one of these is a neurotoxin that accumulates both in soft tissues and the bones, damaging the nervous system and causing brain disorders?

1) Mg
2) Na
3) K
4) Pb

Question 91:

 The digital formula of 2.3.3.3.3  holds good for

1) Man
2) Frog
3) Rabbit
4) Horse

Question 92:

The long ileum of the tadpole of frog suggests that it is

1) Herbivorous
2) Insectivorous
3) Carnivorous
4) Omnivorous

Question 93:

Y and y hypostatic alleles to the epistatic gene -

 1) C
 2) P
 3) W
 4) R

Question 94:

Each colony is collection of bacteria having many copies of DNA fragment called

 1) Splicing
 2) plasmid
 3) Gene Cloning
 4) Replicon

Question 95:

Which part of Nepenthes is modified into pitcher?

 1) Midrib
 2) Stipule
 3) Petiole
 4) Lamina

Question 96:

With
 (a) Simple raceme
 
 (b) Homogamous head
 
 (c) Heterogamous head
 
 (d) Simple cyme, match the examples
 
 (i) crotolaria
 
 (ii) Tridax
 
 (iii) Vernonioa
 
 (iv) Jasmine
 
 1) (i), (iii), (iv), (ii)
 2) (i), (ii), (iv), (iii)
 3) (i), (iii),(ii), (iv)
 4) (i),(iv), (ii), (iii)

Question 97:

The ophthalmologist removes from a dead eye-donor his

1) Iris
2) Cornea
3) Lens
4) Eyeball

Question 98:

Dark acidification and light deacidification mark

1) Hatch and Slack pathway
2) Embden-Meyerhof-Parnas pathway
3) Crassulacean acid metabolism
4) Calvin cycle

Question 99:

Statolith. theory offers an explanation for

1) Thigmotropism
2) Phototropism
3) Chemotropism
4) Geotropism
 

Question 100:

The instrument used to study the effect of gravity on plants is

1) Auxanometer
2) Potometer
3) Clinostat
4) Moll's apparatus

Question 101:

 The fruit body of penicillium is :

 1. Apothecium
 2. Cleistothecium
 3. Perithecium
 4. Gynoecium

Question 102:

Which fungus cause Bakanae disease?

 1) Penicillin notatum
 2) Aspergillus myzae
 3) Rhizopus stolonifer
 4) Gibeberella fujikuroi

Question 103:

In fruit flies with the curly wing mutation, the wings will be straight if the flies are kept at 16 degrees Celsius. The most probable explanation for this is that

1) fruit flies with curly wings cannot survive at high temperatures
2) the environment influences wing phenotype in these fruit flies
3) height temperatures increases the rate of mutations
4) wing length in these fruit flies is directly proportional to temperature

Question 104:

Which one of the following is a genetic trait ?

1. Acromegaly
2. Addison's disease
3. Albinism
4. Goitre

Question 105:

Sexual hybridization is not successful in

 1) Some higher plant
 2) Closely related plant species
 3) Species of same genera
 4) Distantly related plant species

Question 106:

The pheromone secreted by the Queen bee is

1) Gyplure       
2) Bombykol
3) Geraniole     
4) 9-oxo decenoic acid
 

Question 107:

If an earthworm is possessing 100 segments, caecum starts from 23rd, in how many segments typhlosole is extended.

1) 48
2) 50
3) 52
4) 49

Question 108:

The efferent salivary duct opens at
1) Receptacle
2) Reservoir
3) Glandular lobes
4) Hypoharynx

Question 109:

Choose the correct pair option:
(i) Growth by mass – Defining property.
(ii) Hominidae – Family of humans.
(iii) Potato and brinjal – belong to the same species.
(iv) The specialised gardens with collections of living plants – Indian Botanical Garden.
(v) Biological names – Seldom Latin.

1) (i), (ii) and (v).
2) (ii) and (iv).
3) (i), (ii) and (iv).
4) (ii), (iii) and (iv).

Question 110:

Periyar sanctuary is located in

1) Madhya Pradesh

2) Kerala

3)Uttar Pradesh

4) Assam

Question 111:

 What is the ion believed to be responsible for the closure and opening of stomata

 1) Mg⁺
 2) Cl ^-
 3) K⁺
 4) Ca⁺

Question 112:

The water which is not of any use of plant is

 1) rain water
 2) gravitational water
 3) Hygroscopic water
 4) Capillary water

Question 113:

How many cells are there in each root hair?

 1) Two
 2) One
 3) Three
 4) Many

Question 114:

Which of the two are associated with each other?

 1) Sieve element & companion cell
 2) Sieve element & Parenchyma
 3) Companion cell & Parenchyma
 4) Sieve element & fibre

Question 115:

'Little leaf or brinzal' is caused by

(1) Viruses

(2) Bacteria

(3) Both (1) and (2)

(4) None of the above

Question 116:

Which one of the following is viviparous?

1) Echidna
2) Sepia
3) Balanoglossus
4) Peripatus

Question 117:

Which one of the following is a matching pair of a body feature and the animal possessing it?

1) Ventral heart - scorpion
2) Post anal tail - octopus
3) Ventral central nervous system - leech
4) Pharyngeal gill slits absent in embryo- chamaeleon

Question 118:

A gene bank is a place where

 1) tissues of plants entered into Red Data Book are maintained by means of tissue culture
 2) the DNAs of all plants and animals in danger of extinction are cryopreserved
 3) plant material likely to get lost irretrievably is preserved as seeds or vegetative material
 4) all of the above

Question 119:

Natural system of classification differs from artificial system in

1) developing evolutionary trends
2) taking only vegetative traits
3) employing only floral traits
4) bringing out similarities & dissimilarities

Question 120:

Which statement is/are wrong with respect to Archaebacteria.

(a) Archaebacteria differ from other bacteria in having a different cell wall structure.
(b) feature of cell wall is responsible for their survival in extreme conditions.
(c) Methanogens are present in the guts of sereral ruminant animals such as cow & buffalo.
(d) These are oldest of the living fossils.
(e) Peptidoglycan & muramic acid are present in cell wall
(1) a and e
(2) b and e
(3) a, b and c
(4) only e

Question 121:

Which of the following is not a method of immobilising enzymes?

 1. Encapsulation
 2. Settlement
 3. Entrapment
 4. Adsorption

Question 122:

What happens when excess of glucose is synthesized by chloroplast in plants?

1) It is converted into polymeric form.
2) It is stored in form of starch.
3) It is stored in form of oil.
4) Both A and B

Question 123:

The expression 'formed elements' refers to

1) blood plasma
2) proteins in blood plasma
3) blood corpuscles
4) the iron atom of haemoglobin

Question 124:

Haemoglobin is found dissolved in the plasma of

1) cockroach
2) frog
3) earthworm
4) snail

Question 125:

Condensation of chromosomes completed in which phase?

1) Early prophase
2) Late prophase
3) Metaphase
4) Anaphase

Question 126:

 The absence of centrioles from higher plant cells means that during somatic cell nuclear division there is

1) No apparent organiser of mitotic spindles
2) No equatorial arrangement of chromo-somes at metaphase
3) No new cell wall laid down at telophase
4) No spindle formed

Question 127:

 A cell increases in volume when placed in solution which is

 1. Isotonic
 2. Hypotonic
 3. Hypertonic
 4. None of the above

Question 128:

One of the following cell-organelles is three membrane bound It is

1) endoplasmic reticulum
2) golgi bodies
3) lysosomes
4) transosomes

Question 129:

Interferon is

 1) Vector DNA
 2) Donar DNA
 3) Antiviral Protein
 4) Growth hormone

Question 130:

Coupling and repulsion are the two aspects of a single phenomena called

 1) crossing over
 2) linkage
 3) synopsis
 4) Chiasma
 

Question 131:

Root tubers are seen in

 1) Carthamus
 2) Potato
 3) Dahlia
 4) Chrysanthemum

Question 132:

Descendingly imbricate aestivations is seen in
 
 1) Euphorbiaceae
 2) Asteraceae
 3) Musaceae
 4) Fabaceae

Question 133:

This plant is used an treating Jaundice

 1) Euphorbhic pulcherima
 2) Riinus communis
 3) Phyllanthus emblica
 4) Phyllanthus amarus

Question 134:

Phyllode modification is seen in

 1) orchid
 2) vanda
 3) Acasia melanxylon
 4) Opuntia

Question 135:

It acts as a shock absorber when long bones come together.

1) Ligament
2) Tendon
3) Cartilage
4) Basement membrane

Question 136:

Chloragogen cells of Pheretima have similar function like the vertebrate 

1) Kidney
2) Malpighian corpuscle
3) Liver
4) Lungs

Question 137:

Growth and reproduction are mutually exclusive events in:

1) Lower plants.
2) Lower animals.
3) Higher plants and animals.
4) Unicellular organisms.

Question 138:

Which of the following is not true for a species?

1) Members of a species can interbreed

2) Variations occurs among members of a species

3) ach species is reproductively isolated from every other species

4) Gene flow does not occur between the populations of a species

Question 139:

The removal of the cuticle from a leaf would most likely result in an increase on the leaf's

1) surface area
2) food production
3) water loss
4) fungus resistance

Question 140:

Dumb-bell shaped guard cells are characteristic of the stomata of

1) all monocotyledonous leaves
2) grass leaves only
3) xerophytic leaves only
4) some dicot and monocot leaves

Question 141:

Typical vertebrae of frog are from :
1. 1-7
2. 3-7
3. 2-8
4. 2-9

Question 142:

Which of the following vitamin deficiency depresses level of prothrombin ?
1. vitamin A
2. vitamin B
3. vitamin K
4. vitamin E
 

Question 143:

Study of nuclear cytology is
1. Neurology
2. Rhinology
3. Mycology
4. Karyology

Question 144:

In a dicotyledonous stem, the sequence of tissues from the outside to the inside is

1) Phellem, Pericycle, Endodermis, Phloem
2) Phellem, Phloem, Endodermis, Pericycle
3) Phellem, Endodermis, Pericycle, Phloem
4) Pericyle, Phellem, Endodermis, Phloem

Question 145:

Funnel-shaped style and stigma develops in

1) Crocus sativus
2) Hibiscus
3) Helianthus
4) Gloriosa

Question 146:

If the skin of earthworm becomes dry , it dies due to

 1) Starvation

2) Intoxication

3) Asphyxiation

4) Dehydration

Question 147:

Trypanosoma, an endoparasite in man is found in

1) blood
2) lungs
3) liver
4) alimentary canal

Question 148:

The condition in where the support growth and maintenance, of an organism, must utilise both heterotrophic and autotrophic is known as 

1) Obligate mixotrophy
2) Obligate autotrophic
3) Facultative autotrophy
4) None of the above

Question 149:

Regarding Chrysophytes which of the following is not a feature:

(1) photosynthetic
(2) float passively in water currents
(3) diatoms and desmids
(4)  none of the above

Question 150:

What type of bond holds substrate molecules to the active site of an enzyme?

 1.Hydrogen.
 2 Disulphide.
 3.Peptide.
 4.Covalent.

Question 151:

Which of the following is NOT a nitrogen base of nucleotides present in plasmid DNA?

1) Thymine
2) Cytosine
3) Uracil
4) Adenine

Question 152:

Polysomes which are common in prokaryotic cell are:

1) Many m – RNA found attached to ribosomes.
2) Many ribosomes found attached to a single m – RNA.
3) Group of ribosomes found freely in the protoplasm.
4) Many mesosomes found on the plasma membrane.

Question 153:

Many bacteria have small circular DNA outside the genomic DNA. This extranuclear DNA 
(a) Confers certain unique phenotypic characters to bacteria.
(b) Are used to monitor bacterial transformation with foreign DNA.
(c) May attach to a single mRNA and form polysome. 
(d) Are also found in all eukaryotic cells.

1) a and b
2) b and c.
3) c and d
4) a and d.

Question 154:

When plasmid combine with the main DNA of bacteria, it is called

1) Episome
2) Mesosome
3) Sphaerosome
4) Lamellasome.

Question 155:

Mesothelioma tumour of-

(1) Pleura
(2) Pericardium
(3) Peritoneum
(4) All the above

Question 156:

Bacillus Calmette-Guerin vaccine is given to combat

1) AIDS
2) Rabies
3) Tuberculosis
4) Herpes

Question 157:

 The longest stage in mammalian spermatogenesis is

1) Leptotene
2) Zygotene
3) Pachytene
4) Diplotene

Question 158:

Puffs in salivary gland chromosomes represent the site of

(1) RNA synthesis

(2) Protein synthesis

(3) DNA replication

(4) All of the above

Question 159:

Bacterial transformation was first studied in-

(1) Streptococcus aureus
(2) Escherichia coli
(3) Diplococcus pneumoniae
(4) Salmonella typhimurium

Question 160:

Genetic elements that possess dual capacity for existing as a chromosomal or extra-chromosomal entity are

1) Mesosomes
2) Episomes
3) Oxysomes
4) Autosomes

Question 161:

Inflorescence with thick, fleshy axis and large coloured bracts is

1) Spathe
2) Spadix
3) Spikelet
4) Hypanthodium

Question 162:

Floral features are chiefly used in the identification of angiosperms because

1) flowers are nice to work with
2) flowers have varied colours
3) flowers can be safely pressed
4) reproductive parts are comparatively stable and conservative than the vegetative parts

Question 163:

Which one of the following is a pseudocereal ?

(1) Oryza sativa

(2) Fagropyrum esculentum

(3) Triticum aestivum

(4) Zea mays

Question 164:

CAM stands for crassulacian acid metabolism. The Crassulaceae is a family of

(1) Xerophytic plants growing only on rocks

(2) Flowering succulent plants

(3) Non-flowering succulent plants

(4) Non-vascular plants and certain bryophytes

Question 165:

In squirrels, the gene for gray fur (G) is dominant over the gene for black fur (g). If 50% of a large litter of squirrels are gray, the parental cross that produced this litter was most likely

1. GG x Gg
2. GG x GG
3. Gg x gg
4. gg x gg

Question 166:

Which cross could produce a child with type O blood?

1. AO x BB
2. AA x BO
3. AB x OO
4. AO x BO

Question 167:

Which represents the genotype of a homozygous condition?

1. Bb
2. BC
3. bb
4. bc

Question 168:

What percentages can be expected in the offspring of cross between a female carrier for color blindness and a male with normal color vision?

1. 25% normal male, 25% colorblind males, 25% normal females, 25% carrier females
2. 25% normal males, 25% colorblind males, 25% carrier females, 25% colorblind females
3. 75% normal males, 25% carrier females
4. 50% colorblind males, 50% colorblind females

Question 169:

Geneticists have observed that fruit flies that commonly inherit vestigial wings also inherit lobed eyes. Observations such as this have helped to develop the genetic concept known as

1. segregation
2. dominance
3. gene linkage
4. crossing-over

Question 170:

By which process are two daughter nuclei formed that are identical to each other and to the original nucleus?

1. meiosis
2. synapsis
3. fertilization
4. mitosis

Question 171:

Chromosomes normally occur as homologous pairs in

1. a sperm cell
2. an egg cell
3. a zygote
4. a gamete

Question 172:

Because the gene for hemophilia is located on the X-chromosome, it is normally impossible for a

1. carrier mother to pass the gene to her son
2. hemophiliac father to pass the gene on to his son
3. hemophiliac father to pass the gene to his daughter
4. carrier mother to pass the gene to her daughter

Question 173:

Which color light is least important to a green plant during photosynthetic activities?

1. green
2. yellow
3. blue
4. orange

Question 174:

When many hybrid tall pea plants are cross-pollinated, the offspring produced will probably be

1. 100% homozygous tall
2. 100% heterozygous tall
3. 50% homozygous tall
4. 50% heterozygous tall

Question 175:

In the process of photosynthesis, chlorophyll serves as

1. an end-product
2. a raw material
3. an energy converter
4. a hydrogen acceptor

Question 176:

Some individuals with blood group A may inherit the genes for blond hair, while other individuals with blood group A may inherit the genes for brown hair. This can be explained by the principle of

1. dominance
2. multiple alleles
3. independent assortment
4. incomplete dominance

Question 177:

The outward appearance (gene expression) of a particular trait in an organism is referred to as

1. a genotype
2. a phenotype
3. an allele
4. a chromosome

Question 178:

A man with a blood genotype AO marries a woman with a blood genotype of AO. What blood types could be expected in their children?

1. type A, only
2. type O, only
3. both type A and type O
4. neither type A nor type O

Question 179:

A child is born with an extra chromosome in each of its cells. This condition is usually the result of

1. nondisjunction
2. crossing-over
3. segregation
4. hybridization

Question 180:

A cell with a diploid number of 24 undergoes meiosis, how many chromosomes are in each daughter cell?
 1) 6
 2) 12
 3) 24
 4) 48