Question 1:

When a capillary tube is dipped in a liquid, the liquid rises to a height h in the tube. The free liquid surface inside the tube is hemispherical in the shape. The tube is now pushed down so that the height of the tube outside the liquid is less than h

1) The liquid will come out of the tube like in a small fountain.
2) The liquid will ooze out of the tube slowly.
3) The liquid will fill the tube but not come out of its upper end
4) The free liquid surface inside the tube will not be hemispherical.

Question 2:

A steel wire of length 30 cm is stretched to increase its length by 0.2 cm. Find the lateral strain in the wire if the poisson's ratio for steel is 0.19 :

1) 0.0019.
2) 0.0008.
3) 0.019
4) 0.008

Question 3:

A pendulum is hung from the roof of a sufficiently high building and is moving freely to and fro like a simple harmonic oscillator. The acceleration of the bob of the pendulum 20 m/s² at a distance of 5 m from the moving position. The time period of oscillation is?

1) 2s
2) 2πs
3) 1s
4) πs

Question 4:

 An isolated conductor will become polarized (in terms of charge) when:

(1) it is touched by a charged object.

(2) it is warmed.

(3) it is brought close to (but not touching) a charged object.

(4) it is charged with a power supply

Question 5:

A car weighing 2×10³kg and moving at 20 m/s along a main road collides with a lorry of mass 8×10³kg which emerges at 5 m/s from a cross road at right angle to the main road. If the two vehicles lock, what will be their velocity after the collision?

1) 4/√2m/s,45? with cross road
2) 4/√2m/s,45? with main road
3) 4/√2m/s,60? with cross road
4) 4/√2m/s,60? with main road

Question 6:

A man of mass m = 60 kg is standing on a weighing machine fixed on a triangular wedge of angle θ = 60o with horizontal as shown in the figure.

The wedge is moving up with an upward acceleration a = 2 m/s2. The weight registered by machine is

1) 600 N

2) 1440 N

3) 360 N

4) 240 N

Question 7:

An object is resting at the bottom of two strings which are inclined at an angle of 120° with each other. Each string can withstand a tension of 20 N. The maximum weight of the object that can be supported without breaking the string is

1) 5 N

2) 10 N

3) 20 N

4) 40 N

Question 8:

An infinite long cylindrical conducting wire is kept parallel to uniform magnetic field along positive Zaxis.

Question 9:

 If the magnetic field vector is directed toward the north and a positively charged particle is moving toward the east, what is the direction of the magnetic force on the particle?

(1) West

(2) Up

(3) South

(4) Down

Question 10:

An aeroplane is travelling horizontally at a height of 2000 m from the ground. The aeroplane, when at a point P, drops a bomb
to hit a stationary target Q on the ground. In order that the bomb hits the target, what angle θ must the line PQ make with the vertical ? [g = 10ms^–2]

1)  15°
2) 30°
3) 90°
4) 45°

Question 11:

From the top of twer of height 40 m a ball is projected upwards with a speed of 20m/s at an angle of elevation of 30°. Then the ratio of the total time taken by the ball to hit the ground to its time of flight ( time taken to come back to the same elevation ) is

1) 2 : 1
2) 3 : 1
3) 3 : 2
4) 4 : 1

Question 12:

Which one of the following statements about expansion is correct?
 
 (1) Pyrex glass expands much less than ordinary glass under the same conditions.
 (2) Liquids do not expand when heated
 (3) Gases do not expand when heated
 (4) Water expands uniformly from 0 C upwards

Question 13:

 In a closed container the mass of molecule is 3 x 10^-27 kg. and velocity of molecule is 10 m/sec. If the no. of molecules in the container is 10²⁴, the pressure will be :

(1) 100 N/m²
(2) 10 N/m²
(3) 1 N/m²
(4) 0.5 N/m²

Question 14:

The electric field in a region of space is given by $$\vec{E}=(\hat{5i}+\hat{2j}  )Nc^{-1}$$ . The electric flux due to this field through an area $$2m^{2}$$ lying in the Y-Z plane in S.I. units is

1) 2√29
2) 20
3) 10√2
4) 10

Question 15:

Two metal spheres having charge densities 5μC/m² and −2μC/m² with radii 2mm2mm and 1mm respectively are kept in a hypothetical closed surface. Calculate total normal electric induction over the closed surface.

1) 22.6 × 10⁻¹² Nm²/C
2) 226.08 × 10⁻¹⁰ Nm²/C
3) 226.08 × 10⁻¹² Nm²/C
4) 2.26 ×  10⁻¹² Nm²/C

Question 16:

 Two satellites A and B of the same mass are going around earth in concentric orbits. The distance of satellite B from Earth’s center is twice that of satellite A What is the ratio of the centripetal force acting on B to that acting on A?

1. 1/8              2. ¼

3. ½                 4. 1/Ö2

Question 17:

 Two satellites A and B of the same mass are going around the earth in concentric orbits. The distance of satellite B from earth’s center is twice that of satellite A. What is the ratio of the speed of B to that of A?

1. ½

2. 1/Ö2

Question 18:

The n-type semi-conductor is:

(1) Germanium doped with aluminum
(2) Silicon doped with indium.
(3) Germanium doped with arsenic
(4) Germanium doped with indium.

Question 19:

In a good conductor the energy gap between the conduction band and valence band is:

(1) Wide
(2) Infinite
(3) Zero
(4) Narrow

Question 20:

  In the electric field experiment, along an electric field line the double pronged DVM probe:

(1) Always points directly to one of the electrodes.

(2) Will read zero.

(3) Will read a minimum.

(4) Will read a maximum.

Question 21:

 The electroscope used in the electrostatics experiment is typically charged using a power supply with a voltage range:

(1) 0 to 30 volts.

(2) 0 to 100 volts.

(3) 0 to 300 volts.

(4) 0 to 3000 volts..

Question 22:

Two conducting rings of radii r and 2r move in opposite directions with velocities 2v and v respectively on a conducting surface S. There is a uniform magnetic field of magnitude Bperpendicular to the plane of the rings. The potential difference between the highest points of the two rings is

1) zero
2) 2rvB
3) 4rvB
4) 8rvB

Question 23:

A plane electromagnetic wave of frequency $$25\ MHz$$ travels in free space along the x-direction. At a particular point in space and time, $$\vec { E } =6.3\hat { j } { V }/{ m }$$. What is $$\vec {B}$$ at this point?

1) 4.1×10−8k
2) 2.1×10⁻⁸k
3) 0.21×10⁻⁸k
4) 20.1×10⁻⁸k

Question 24:

A material 'B' has twice the specific resistance of 'A'. A circular wire made of 'B' has twice the diameter of wire made of 'A' then for the two wires to have the same resistance, the ratio, $$\dfrac{I_B}{I_A}$$ of their respective length must be

1) 1
2) 2
3) 1 / 4
4) 1 / 2

Question 25:

'n' electrons flow through a cross-section of a conductor in time t. If charge on an electron is 'e', then the current in the conductor would be

1) $$\displaystyle \frac{ne}{t}$$
2) $$\displaystyle \frac{ne^2}{t}$$
3) $$\displaystyle \frac{e}{t}$$
4) $$\displaystyle \frac{n}{et}$$

Question 26:

 The half life of a radioactive substance is 25 days. The 25 gm. sample of this substance will reduce is 150 days to :

(1) 0.375 gm.
(2) 0.75 gm.
(3) 1.5 gm.
(4) 4 gm.

Question 27:

The energy of gamma ($$\gamma$$) ray photon is $$E_y$$ and that of an X-ray photon is $$E_x$$. If the visible light photon has an energy of $$E_v$$, then we can say that

1) $$E_x > E_y > E_v$$
2) $$E_y > E_v > E_x$$
3) $$E_y > E_x > E_v$$
4) $$E_x > E_v > E_y$$

Question 28:

A capacitor of 2.5 µf is charged through a resistor of 4mÙ. In how much time will potential drop across capacitor will become 3 times that of resistor (l n 2 = 0.693)

Question 29:

IIn a series L−C−R circuit, current in the circuit is 11A when the applied voltage is 220V. Voltage across the capacitor is 200V. If value of resistor 20Ω, then the voltage across the unknown inductor is

1) Zero
2) 200V
3) 20V
4) None of these

Question 30:

The temperature of 100 g of water is to be raised from 24° C to 90° C by adding steam to it. Calculate the mass of the steam required for this purpose (latent heat of steam = 540 k Cal/kg)
1.10 g
2. 11 g
3. 12 g
4. 15 g

Question 31:

In the given circuit, with steady current, the potential drop across the capacitor must be:

1) V

2)  V/2

3) V/3

4) 2V/3

Question 32:

The velocity factor of a transmission line is 0.62. Calculate dielectric constant of the insulation used

1) 2.6

2)  3

3) 4

4) 5

Question 33:

 A 240-Volt appliance draws 15A of current for a period of 2 hours. How much energy in kilowatt-hours does it consume?

1) 7.2

2) 2 .6 x10⁷ 

3) 7200

4) 3600

Question 34:

 A galvanometer is a sensitive instrument that gives a reading proportional to the current that ows through it. If such an instrument has a built-in (internal) resistance of 200 Ohms and requires a current of 5:0mA for full-scale reading, what resistance should be connected in parallel with this galvanometer to make it function as an ammeter that reads 10A when the reading is full-scale?

1) 400 Ohm

2) 0.2 Ohm

3) 0.1 Ohm

4) 4.105 Ohm

Question 35:

A transmitter transmits at a wavelength of 300m A condenser of capacitance 2.4μF is being used. The value of the inductance for the resonant circuit is approximately

1) 10⁻⁴ H
2) 10⁻⁶ H
3) 10⁻⁸ H
4) 10⁻¹⁰ H

Question 36:

A coil has resistance 30 ohm and inductive reactance 20 Ohm at 50 Hz frequency. If an ac source, of 200 volt, 100 Hz, is connected across the coil, the current in the coil will be

1) 2.0 A
2) 4.0 A
3) 8.0 A
4) $$\frac{20}{\sqrt{13}}A$$

Question 37:

 An alpha particle is accelerated to a velocity v in a particle accelerator by a potential difference of 1200 V. Which of the following potential differences would be needed to give the alpha particle twice the velocity?

1) 7200 V 
2) 4800 V
3) 4100 V
4) 2400 V

Question 38:

Fast neutrons can easily be slowed down by

1. Applying a strong electric field
2. The use of lead shielding
3. Passing them through water
4. Elastic collision with heavy nuclei

Question 39:

A wave of amplitude 10 cm and frequency 1000 Hz is travelling with a velocity of 300 m/s. Calculate the phase difference of a particle at a distance of 3 m from the origin after 1.001 s

1) 20π
2) 19π
3) 18π
4) 8π

Question 40:

Two waves are represented by the equations 
y1?=asin(ω+kx+0.57)m and
y2?=acos(ωt+kx)m
where x is in meter and t in sec. The phase difference between them is 

1) 0.57 radian
2) 1.0 radian
3) 1.25 radian
4) 1.57 radian

Question 41:

A block of wood is pulled along a horizontal bench at a constant speed of 15 m/s by a force of 8N. How much work is done against friction in 6 seconds?
 
 (1) 720J
 (2) 120J
 (3) 48J
 (4) 20J

Question 42:

As an object falls freely, the kinetic energy of the object

1) decreases
2) increases
3) remains the same
4) none

Question 43:

Two non-reactive monoatomic ideal gases have their atomic masses in the ratio 2 : 3. The ratio of their partial pressures, when enclosed in a vessel kept at a constant temperature, is 4 : 3. The ratio of their densities is

1) 1 : 4
2) 1 : 2
3) 6 : 9
4) 8 : 9

Question 44:

An lnsulated vessel contains 0.4 kg of water at 0^oC. A piece of 0.1 kg ice at  −15^oC is put into it and steam at 100^oC is bubbled into it until all ice is melted and finally the contents are liquid water at 40^oC. Assume that the vessel does not give or take any heat and there is no loss of matter and heat to the surroundings. Specific heat of ice is 2.2×10³Jkg−1K⁻¹, heat of fusion of water is 333×103Jkg⁻¹ and heat of vaporization of water is 2260 × 10³Jkg⁻¹. The amount of steam that was bubbled in to the water is about :

1) 34.7 g
2) 236.0 g
3) 0.023 g
4) 48.0 g

Question 45:

 In young double slit experiment the two coherent sources are separated by 2 mm. the distance of screen is 1m. If the fringe width is 0.03 cm. the wavelength of light will be:

(1) 6000 Å
(2) 5890 Å
(3) 5000 Å
(4) 4000 Å

Question 46:

Pure anhydrous magnesium chloride can be prepared from hydrated salt by

1)  They exist in equilibrium

2)  They possess same electronic arrangement but different atomic arrangements

3)  They possess same molecular mass

4)  They have different electronic as well as atomic arrangements

Question 47:

The underlining of blast furnace is made of

1)  fire clay bricks

2)  basic bricks

3)  silica rocks

4)  graphite

Question 48:

In a mixture, two enantiomers are found to be present in 85% and 15% respectively. The enantiomeric excess (e,e′) is :

1) 85 %

2) 15 %

3) 70 %

4) 60 %

Question 49:

What is the final product obtained when chlorine reacts with ethyl alcohol in KOH?

1) CHCl₃

2) CCl₃CHO

3) CH₃Cl

4) None

Question 50:

Which of the following compounds is used in antiknock compositions to prevent the deposition of oxides of  lead on spark plug combustion chamber and exhaust pipe

1) glycol

2) glycerol

3) benzene

4) 1,2-dibromoethane   

Question 51:

Benzene is unreactive because :

 1) It has carbon - carbon single bonds
2) It has double bonds
3) p electrons are delocalised
4) Carbons are sp2 hybridised

Question 52:

H₂?O₂? + H₂O → H₃?O⁺ + HO₂⁻? 

The reaction indicates:

1) H₂?O₂? is a bleaching agent
2) H_2?O is more acidic than H_2??O_2?
3) H_2?O_2?? is more acidic than H_2?O.
4) both H_2?O_2?? and H_2??O are acidic

Question 53:

Magnesium reacts with acids producing hydrogen and corresponding magnesium salts. In such reactions Mg undergoes.

1) Reduction
2) Oxidation
3) Neither oxidation nor reduction
4) Simple dissolution

Question 54:

The dissociation constant of and acid HA is 1x10^-5.The pH of 0.1 molar solution of the acid will be :

1) Five
2) Four
3) Three
4) One.

Question 55:

 The compound whose 0.1 M solution is basic is

1)  Sodium acetate

2)  Ammonium sulphate

3)  Ammonium chloride

4)  Ammonium acetate

Question 56:

The mass of CO₂ obtained by the complete thermal decomposition of 80% of 40 pure sample of CaCO₃ is nearly equal to?

1) 4.4g
2) 44g
3) 32g
4) 14g

Question 57:

Amines behave as :

1) Lewis acids
2) Lewis bases
3) Amphoteric compounds
4) Neutral compounds

Question 58:

p-type silicon is formed by adding a minute amount of an element with :

1) three valence electrons
2) five valence electrons
3) four valence electrons
4) six valence electrons

Question 59:

Which atom contains exactly 15 protons?
 
 1. P-32
 2. S-32
 3. O-15
 4. N-15

Question 60:

Styrene can be purified by:

1) Simple distillation

2) Fractional distillation

3) Vacuum distillation

4) Steam distillation

Question 61:

The process of separation of an organic compound  from its aqueous solution by shaking with a suitable solvent is termed solvent extraction or differential extraction.
The organic compound present in aqueous layer moves to the organic solvent because:

1) the organic substance is more soluble in the organic solvent

2) organic compound being lighter moves in the upper layer

3) organic solvent is insoluble in water hence organic compound moves up

4) from the supersaturated aqueous solution the solute starts diffusing

Question 62:

The oxidation states of Cr in [Cr(H₂O)]Cl₃,[Cr(C₆H₆)₂], and K₂[Cr(CN)₂(O)₂(O)₂(NH₃)] respectively are :

1) +3,+4, and +6
2) +3,+2, and +4
3) +3, 0, and +6
4) +3, 0, and +4

Question 63:

The sum of oxidation states of sulphur in H₂S₂O₈ is?

1) +2
2) +4
3) +6
4) +12

Question 64:

30 g of Magnesium and 30 g of oxygen are reacted, then the residual mixture contains:

1) 50 g of Magnesium oxide and 10 g of oxygen
2) 40 g of Magnesium oxide and 20 g of oxygen
3) 45 g of Magnesium oxide and 15 g of oxygen
4) 50 g of Magnesium only

Question 65:

The sulphate of which metal given below has the highest solubility in water?

1) Ca
2) Ba
3) Sr
4) Mg

Question 66:

 Diamagnetism is the property of

1)  non-transition metals

2)  completely filled electronic subshells

3)  unpaired electrons

4)  nucleons

Question 67:

Ferrous oxide has a cubic structure with an edge length of the unit cell equal to 5.0 Å. Assuming the density of ferrous oxide to be 3.84 g cm⁻³, the number of Fe²⁺ and O²⁻ ions present in each unit cell will be respectively, (use NA=6×10²³)

1) 4 and 4
2) 2 and 2
3) 1 and 1
4) 3 and 4

Question 68:

 The most efficient packing of similar spheres is obtained in-

1) The simple cubic system and the body centered cubic system

2) The simple cubic system and the hexagonal close packed system.

3) The face centered cubic system and the hexagonal close packed system.

4) The body centered cubic system and the face centered cubic system.

Question 69:

If the dispersed phase is liquid and the dispersion medium is solid, the colloid is known as a/an :
 1) sol
 2) emulsion
 3) gel
 4) foam

Question 70:

On a ship sailing in a pacific ocean where temperature is 23.4^oC, a balloon is filled with 2L air. What will be the volume of the balloon when the ship reaches Indian Ocean, where temperature is 26.1^oC

1)1.37L
2) 4.0 L
3) 2.02L
4) 2.94L

Question 71:

When 0.5g. of sulphur is burnt to SO₂ 4.6 kj of heat is liberated. What is the enthalpy of formation of sulphur dioxide? (S=32 and O=16)

1) -147.2KJ
2) + 147.2KJ
3) + 294.4KJ
4) - 294.4KJ.

Question 72:

An aqueous solution containing 100grams of dissolved MgSO₄ is fed to a crystallizer where 80% of the Dissolved salt crystallises out as MgSO₄. 6H₂O Crystals. How many grams of the hexahydrate salt Crystals are obtained from the crystalliser?(given Mg=24; S=32; O=16 and H=1).

1) 80.
2) 152.
3) 120.
4) 100

Question 73:

526.3 mL of 0.5 m HCl is shaken with 0.5 g of activated charcoal and filtered. The concentration of the filtrate is reduced to 0.4 m. The amount of adsorption of HCl per unit mass of adsorbent is 

1) 3
2) 6
3) 8
4) 4

Question 74:

When oil and water are into the same vessel, two layers are observed with the less dense oil on top. These two liquids are said to be:

1) hydrophilic
2) immiscible
3) hydrophobic
4) insoluble

Question 75:

Given
C + 2S → CS₂ , ΔH_f^o=+ 117.0 kJ/mol
C+ O2 → CO₂ , ΔH_f^o=- 393.0 kJ/mol
S+ O₂ → SO₂ , ΔH_f^o=- 287.0 kJ/mol
The heat of combustion of
CS₂ + 3O₂ → CO₂ + 2SO₂ is

1) - 807 kJ/mol
2) -1104 kJ/mol
3) +1104 kJ/mol
4) +807 kJ/mol

Question 76:

Two moles of an ideal gas initially at 27^oC and one atmospheric pressure are compressed isothermally and reversibly till the final pressure of the gas is 10 atm. Calculate q for the process.

1) 11488 J
2) – 11488 J
3) 11588 J
4) – 11688 J

Question 77:

In acidic medium, KMnO₄? oxidises FeSO₄? solution. Which of the following statements is correct?

1) 10 mL of 1 N KMnO4? solution oxidises 10 mL of 5 N FeSO₄ solution.

2) 10 mL of 1 M KMnO₄? solution oxidises 10 mL of 1 M FeSO₄ solution.

3) 10 mL of 1 M KMnO₄? solution oxidises 10 mL of 5 M FeSO₄? solution

4) 10 mL of 1 N KMnO₄? solution oxidises 10 mL of 0.1 M FeSO₄? solution.

Question 78:

When MnO₄⁻? and I⁻ react in a strongly basic solution, the products will most likely be :

1) Mn and I_2? 

2) MnO₄²⁻?, IO₃?⁻

3) MnO₂?,O₂?,IO⁻

4) Mn²⁺, I₂?

Question 79:

The Electrophile involved in the reaction is
 

Question 80:

Which of the following acid chloride is the most unstable ?

1) Acetyl chloride
2) Formyl chloride
3) Benzoyl chloride
4) o-chlorobenzoyl chloride

Question 81:

HClO₄, HNO₃ and HCl are all very strong acids in aqueous solution. In glacial acetic acid medium, their acid strength is such that

1) HClO₄ > HNO₃ > HCI

2) HNO₃ > HClO₄ > HCl

3) HCl > HClO₄ > HNO₃

4) HCl > HClO₄ ~ HNO₃

Question 82:

Consider the following reactions in which atoms has been labelled with isotopes (indicated by .)

In which case isotopes are equivalent in the products?

1) I
2) II
3) Both I and II
4) None of these

Question 83:

Dissociation of HI into H₂ and I₂ is

1) kinetically controlled

2) thermodynamically controlled

3) kinetically as well as thermodynamically controlled

4) neither kinetically nor thermodynamically controlled

Question 84:

The vapour pressure of the solvent decreased by 10 mm of Hg when a non volatile solute was added to the solvent. The mole fraction of the solute in the solution is 0.2 what should be the mole fraction of solvent if the decrease in vapour pressure is required to be 20 mm of Hg

1) 0.6
2) 0.8
3) 0.4
4) 0.2

Question 85:

The IUPAC name of the compound is

1) 4-Hydroxy-1-methylpentoic acid
2) 4-Hydroxy-2-methylpentoic acid
3) 2-Hydroxy-4-methylpentoic acid
4) 2-Hydroxy-2-methylpentoic acid

Question 86:

Two gases A and B having the same volume diffuse through a porous partition in 20 and 10 second respectively. The molecular mass of A is 49 u. Molecular mass of B will be

1) 12.25 u
2) 6.50 U
3) 25.00 U
4) 50.00 U

Question 87:

A gas such as carbon monoxide would be most likely to obey the ideal gas law at

1) High temperature and low pressures
2) Low temperature and high pressures
3) High temperatures and high pressures
4) Low temperatures and low pressures

Question 88:

In Zeisel's method for the determination of methoxy groups, a sample of 2.68 gm of a compound (A) gave 14.08 gm of AgI. If the  molecular weight of compound (A) is 134, the number of (−OCH₃) group(s) in the compound (A) is:

1) 1
2) 2.
3) 3
4) 4

Question 89:

Sodium phenoxide reacts with CO₂ at 400K and 4−7 atm pressure to give:

1) Cathchol
2) Salicylaldehyde
3) Salocylic acid
4) Sodium salicylate

Question 90:

Which one of the following on oxidation with alkaline permangante solution yields benzoic acid ? :

1) Isopropyl chloride
2) Benzyl chloride
3) Chlorobenzene
4) Phenol.

Question 91:

Which statement best describes a difference between cell division in plant and animal cells?

1. In animal cells, cytoplasmic division is accomplished by a
2. In plant cells, cytoplasmic division is accomplished by a
3. In plant cells, centrosomes have a distinct role in spindle formation, while in animal cells centrosomes do not function during cell division.
4. In animal cells, replication of chromosomes occurs during the nondividing phase, while in plant cells replication occurs when the nuclear membrane disintegrates.

Question 92:

Most cell membranes are composed principally of

1. DNA and ATP
2. proteins and lipids
3. chitin and starch
4. nucleotides and amino acids

Question 93:

Which structure includes all of the others?

1. nucleolus
2. nucleus
3. chromosomes
4. genes

Question 94:

Which substances are secreted at the endings of nerve cells?

1. antibodies
2. antigens
3. neurotransmitters
4. lipids

Question 95:

Which statement best explains why invertebrates regenerate lost tissue more readily than most vertebrates do?

1. Invertebrates contain specialized cells that produce the hormones necessary for this process.
2. Invertebrate cells exhibit a higher degree of uncontrolled cell division than vertebrate cells do.
3. Invertebrate animals reproduce asexually, but vertebrate animals reproduce sexually.
4. Invertebrate animals have more undifferentiated cells than vertebrate animals have.

Question 96:

As a fertilized frog egg develops into an embryo, it undergoes

1. one meiotic cell division, only
2. many meiotic cell divisions
3. one mitotic cell division, only
4. many mitotic cell divisions

Question 97:

The series of mitotic divisions that occurs directly after a zygote is formed is known as

1. fertilization
2. cleavage
3. meiosis
4. parthenogenesis

Question 98:

Which nitrogenous bases make up DNA nucleotides?

1. adenine, thymine, guanine, and cytosine
2. adenine, uracil, guanine and cytosine
3. adenine, thymine, uracil, and cytosine
4. adenine, thymine, guanine, and uracil

Question 99:

Root hairs develop from the region of

1) Maturation
2) Elongation
3) Root cap
4) Meristematic activity

Question 100:

Totipotency is present in _________.

1) Meristem
2) Cambium
3) Phloem
4) Cork

Question 101:

The tissue that perpetuates itself by cell division is

1) Ground tissue
2) Meristematic tissue
3) Permanent tissue
4) Vascular tissue

Question 102:

Malignant tertian malaria is caused by

1) Plasmodium vivax
2) Plasmodium falciparum
3) Plasmodium malariae
4) Plasmodium ovale

Question 103:

Chloragogen cells of earthworm are analogous to

1) liver of invertebrates
2) kidney of vertebrates
3) liver of vertebrates
4) uriniferous tubules
 

Question 104:

Scorpions and spiders belong to

1) Insecta
2) Crustacea
3) Myriapoda
4) Arachnida
 

Question 105:

In photosynthetic bacteria, the pigments occur in

1) Chloroplasts
2) Chromatoplasts
3) Chromatophores
4) Leucoplasts

Question 106:

The structure producing basidium in basidiomycetes is formed by the fusion of ::

1) Two vegetative cells
2) Two male gametes
3) Two female gametes
4) Male and female gametes

Question 107:

Complete nucleic acid hydrolysis yields all the following, except

1) Phosphoric acid
2) Purines
3) Pentoses
4) Adenosine

Question 108:

Amino sugars are the building blocks of which polysaccharide?

1) Chitin
2) Starch
3) Glycogen
4) Cellulose

Question 109:

If at the end of meiosis the 4 daughter cells produced have 20 chromosomes each, how many chromosomes would have been present in the mother cell from which these daughter cells are formed?
1) 20
2) 10
3) 80
4) 40

Question 110:

When the number of chromosomes is already reduced to half in the first reductional division of meiosis, what is the necessary of second meiotic division?
1) The division is required for the formation of four gametes
2) Division ensures equal distribution of haploid chromosomes
3) Division ensures equal distribution of genes on chromosomes
4) Division is required for the segregation of replicated chromosomes

Question 111:

Yellow bone marrow

 1) is yellow due to the reduced blood supply
 2) is haemopoietically dormant
 3) cannot form blood cells
 4) is haemopoietically very active

Question 112:

The cell-organelles exclusive to plant cell are

1) glyoxysomes and sphaerosomes
2) golgi bodies and ribosomes
3) lysosomes and microtubules
4) endoplasmic reticulum and ribosomes

Question 113:

In DNA finger-printing, advantage is taken of the fact that

1) DNA, as a whole differs from person to person
2) sections of DNA like repetitive DNA differ from person to person
3) DNA can be easily printed as a chromatogram
4) radioactive isotopes can be used as labels in respect of as many as three atoms, S, P and C

Question 114:

Which of the following is wrong?

 1) Marginal placentation is seen in pisum sativum
 2) Axial placentation is found in Fabaceae family
 3) Cucumber has parietal placentation
 4) In tridax plant û Basal placentation is present.

Question 115:

The spines on the tough rind of Jackfruit represents

 1) Carpel
 2) Filament
 3) Stigma
 4) Style

Question 116:

The branches of Chrysanthemum develop from

 1) Axillary bud
 2) Terminal bud
 3) Scale leaf
 4) root

Question 117:

ITop-shaped multiciliate male gamete and seeds with two cotyledons occur in

1) Cycads
2) Conifers
3) Polypetalous angiosperms
4) Gamopetalous angiosperms

Question 118:

Sporophyte dependent upon gametophyte is found in

1) Algae
2) Fungi
3) Bryophytes
4) Pteridophytes

Question 119:

A father whose blood group is A has a child whose blood group is O. Obviously, the genotypes of the parents from among the following could be

 1) LALA X LOLO

 2) LALA X LALO

 3) LALO X LALB

 4) LALO X LBLO

Question 120:

Conjugation is a type of

1) Isogamy
2) Anisogamy
3) Oogamy
4) Asexual reproduction

Question 121:

Which of the following is exonephric nephridia? 

1) Pharyngeal nephridia
2) Septal nephridia
3) Integumentary nephridia
4) Integumentary and pharyngeal nephiridia

Question 122:

In Cockroach, nymphal characters are maintained by

1) Ecdysone
2) Salivary glands
3) Parotid gland
4) Juvenile hormone

Question 123:

Basic unit or smallest taxon of taxonomy/classification is 

1) Species
2) Kingdom
3) Family
4) Variety

Question 124:

Which is correct about energy changes in living cells?

1) First energy transfer, then energy transformation
2) First energy transformation, then energy transfer
3) Both occur discontinuously
4) Both occur continuously

Question 125:

In humans, what is the ratio of the number of gametes produced from one male primary sex cell to the number of gametes produced from one female primary sex cell?

1. 1:3
2. 1:4
3. 3:1
4. 4:1

Question 126:

Which reproductive adaptation is characteristic of most terrestrial vertebrates but not of most aquatic vertebrates?

1. external fertilization
2. internal fertilization
3. motile gametes
4. external development

Question 127:

Based on the fact that a watermelon contains many seeds, what can be inferred about a normal flower of a watermelon plant?

1. It contains many sepals and petals.
2. It contains very large anthers.
3. It contains a large number of ovules.
4. It contains a large number of stamens.

Question 128:

Which statement best describes the sperm cells of an animal that are produced from primary sex cells?

1. They are diploid as a result of mitotic division.
2. They are genetically identical to the primary sex cells.
3. They contain the monoploid number of chromosomes.
4. They are larger than egg cells.

Question 129:

In which part of a flower do both meiosis and fertilization occur?

1. ovule
2. stigma
3. anther
4. petal

Question 130:

Which is one of the early steps in the formation of both egg and sperm cells?

1. chromosome pairing
2. polar body formation
3. unequal division of cytoplasm
4. yolk accumulation

Question 131:

A pollen grain does not normally germinate until

1. a zygote is formed
2. cleavage has occurred
3. pollination has occurred
4. a diploid nucleus is formed

Question 132:

The process of meiotic cell division in a human male usually forms

1. one diploid cell, only
2. four diploid cells
3. one monoploid cell, only
4. four monoploid cells

Question 133:

In humans, the fusion of the nuclei of two functional gametes results in the formation of a

1. monoploid cell
2. zygote
3. cotyledon
4. polyploid cell

Question 134:

According to the heterotroph hypothesis, autotrophs were able to evolve because heterotrophs made conditions more favorable by

1. producing chlorophyll for plants
2. adding carbon dioxide to the environment
3. storing energy in the bonds of inorganic compounds
4. manufacturing food from carbon dioxide and oxygen

Question 135:

Hydras, earthworms, grasshoppers, and humans are classified in the same

1. genus
2. species
3. phylum
4. kingdom

Question 136:

According to the heterotroph hypothesis, some early heterotrophs evolved into autotrophs because of their ability to synthesize organic compounds from water and

1. carbon dioxide
2. hydrochloric acid
3. oxygen
4. hydrogen

Question 137:

Certain bacteria living in a human's large intesting help to produce vitamin K. This relationship is an example of

1. animal parasitism
2. plant parasitism
3. commensalism
4. mutualism

Question 138:

Which organisms are dependent upon other animals for food?

1. producers
2. herbivores
3. scavengers
4. primary consumers

Question 139:

A scorpion stalks, kills, and then eats a spider. Based on its behavior, which ecological terms describe the scorpion?

1. producer, herbivore, decomposer
2. producer, carnivore, heterotroph
3. predator, carnivore, consumer
4. predator, autotroph, herbivore

Question 140:

Which is a breeding method used by humans to produce new and improved varieties of plants and animals?

1. independent assortment
2. crossing-over
3. artificial selection
4. natural selection

Question 141:

Mendel's discovery that characteristics are inherited due to the transmission of hereditary factors resulted from his

1. careful microscopic examinations of genes and chromosomes
2. dissections to determine how fertilization occurs in pea plants
3. breeding experiments with many generations of fruit flies
4. analysis of the offspring produced from many pea plant crosses

Question 142:

Breeders have developed a variety of chicken that has no feathers. Which methods were most likely used to produce this variety?

1. artificial selection and inbreeding
2. grafting and hybridization
3. regeneration and incubation
4. vegetative propagation and binary fission

Question 143:

The number of autosomes and type of sex chromosome normally present in a human egg cell is

1. 44 + XY
2. 44 + XX
3. 22 + Y
4. 22 + X

Question 144:

A scientific name contains information about its:
 1) family & species
 2) genus & species
 3) phylum & order
 4) class & family

Question 145:

Which structure is usually present only in animal cells?

1. vacuole
2. cell wall
3. nucleus
4. centriole

Question 146:

Which of the following processes produces the most ATP?
 1) glycolysis
 2) oxidative phosphorylation
 3) fermentation
 4) krebs cycle

Question 147:

A hybrid black-coated guinea pig produces two million sperm cells. Approximately what number of its sperm cells contain the recessive gene for white coat color?

1. 1 million
2. 2 million
3. 0
4. 0.5 million

Question 148:

Sodium ions are "pumped" from a region of lower concentration to a region of higher concentration in the nerve cells of humans. This process is an example of

1. diffusion
2. passive transport
3. osmosis
4. active transport

Question 149:

Through the use of oxygen-18 (heavy oxygen), scientists have found that the oxygen released during photosynthesis comes from molecules of

1. carbon dioxide
2. water
3. glucose
4. chlorophyll

Question 150:

The presence of DNA is important for cellular metabolic activities because DNA

1. directs the production of enzymes
2. is a structural component of cell walls
3. directly increases the solubility of nutrients
4. is the major component of cytoplasm

Question 151:

In living plants, when does respiration occur?

1. only during digestion
2. only in the daytime
3. only in total darkness
4. all the time

Question 152:

The concept that new varieties of organisms are still evolving is best supported by the

1. increasing need for new antibiotics
2. increasing number of individuals in the human population
3. decreasing number of new fossils discovered in undisturbed rock layers
4. decreasing activity of photosynthetic organisms due to warming of the atmosphere

Question 153:

Normally, in the process of osmosis, the net flow of water molecules into or out of the cell depends upon differences in the

1. concentration of water molecules inside and outside the cell
2. concentration of enzymes on either side of the cell membrane
3. rate of molecular motion on either side of the cell membrane
4. rate of movement of insoluble molecules inside the cell

Question 154:

Mutations can be considered as one of the raw materials of evolution because they

1. contribute to new variations in organisms
2. are usually related to the environment in which they appear
3. are usually beneficial to the organism in which they appear
4. usually cause species of organisms to become extinct

Question 155:

Proteins are made from amino acids by the process of

1. hydrolysis
2. pinocytosis
3. active transport
4. dehydration synthesis

Question 156:

What does the process of photosynthesis produce?

1. starch, which is metabolized into less complex molecules by dehydration synthesis
2. protein, which is metabolized into less complex molecules by dehydration synthesis
3. glycerol, which is metabolized into more complex carbohydrates by dehydration synthesis
4. glucose, which is metabolized into more complex carbohydrates by dehydration synthesis

Question 157:

Which process provides most of the oxygen found in Earth's atmosphere?

1. photosynthesis
2. aerobic respiration
3. dehydration synthesis
4. fermentation

Question 158:

In humans, which substance is produced anaerobically during strenuous activity?

1. lactic acid
2. glycogen
3. carbon dioxide
4. alcohol

Question 159:

A compound that is synthesized by both humans and geranium plants is

1. cellulose
2. ATP
3. ethyl alcohol
4. chlorophyll

Question 160:

The digestion of maltose involves the

1. removal of water molecules from maltose
2. removal of carbon dioxide molecules from maltose
3. addition of water molecules to maltose
4. addition of carbon dioxide molecules to maltose

Question 161:

Most end-products of complete chemical digestion are described as

1. high-energy inorganic compounds
2. small, soluble organic molecules
3. large, insoluble organic molecules
4. complex inorganic compounds

Question 162:

In the oxidation of glucose to water and carbon dioxide, enzymes are needed to catalyze the

1. combination of glucose molecules
2. release of energy by hydrogen removal
3. storage of energy in glycogen molecules
4. production of lactic acid

Question 163:

In animals, which occurs during the synthesis of larger, more complex organic molecules from smaller organic molecules?

1. Water is released.
2. Oxygen is released.
3. Nitrogen is absorbed.
4. Phosphorus is absorbed.

Question 164:

A malfunction of the lymph nodes would most likely interfere with the

1. release of carbon dioxide into the lymph
2. filtering of glucose from the lymph
3. release of oxygen into the lymph
4. filtering of bacteria from the lymph

Question 165:

The tiny free swimming animals on the surface of water constitute: 

 (1) Phytoplankton
 (2) Symbionts
 (3) Benthose
 (4) Zooplankton 

Question 166:

Which of the following plants yields the drug 'ephedrine' ?

(1) I Saraca indica

(2) Terminalia arjuna

(3) Adhatoda vasica

(4) None of the above

Question 167:

Saffron is obtained from

(1) Dried stigma of Crocus plant

(2) Dried flower of Papaver somniferum

(3) Dried flower of rose

(4) None of the above

Question 168:

Which of these protects the changes in basal cell DNA from ultraviolet wavelengths of sunlight

to avoid skin cancer?

(1)Keratinocytes

(2) Melanocytes

(3) Both (1)and (2)

(4) None of these

Question 169:

Perineal or inguinal scent glands found in the skin around genital organs and anus of rabbit, are modified-

(1) Apocrineglands

(2) Eccrine glands

(3) Merocrine glands

(4) Holocrine glands

Question 170:

All the hormones. of the adrenal cortex are synthesized from-

(1) Tyrosine

(2) Glycoproteins

(3) Cholesterol

(4) Fats

Question 171:

Swimming whales are-

(1) Benthos

(2) Nekton

(3) Both (1)and (2)

(4) None of these

Question 172:

Humans possess

(1) Double circuit heart

{B) Puknonary heart

(3) Systemic heart

(4) All the above

Question 173:

Paralysis of both lower limbs but not the upper limbs due to spinal cord damage, is called-

(1) Paraplegia

(2) Hemiplegia

(3) Quadriplegia

(4) None of these

Question 174:

Granules of calcium carbonate contained in the vertebrate inner ear, is called-

(1) Otocyst         (2) Otolith

(3) Statocyst     (4) Ossein

Question 175:

Who among the following said that the percentage of A + G equals 50% and the percentage of T + C equals 50% ?

(1) Hershey and Chase

(2) Jacob and Monad

(3) Griffith and Niescher

(4) None of the above

Question 176:

Demineralization of bones is caused by over secretion of-

(1) Epinephrine

(2) Parathormone

(3) Thyroxine

(4) Melatonin

Question 177:

 Cretinism disorder in childhood is caused due to lack of-

(1)Thyroxine

(2) Vitamin D

(3) Growth hormone

(4) Calcitonin

Question 178:

Indian dairy breed of cattle is :
1. Amrithmahal 
2. Sindhi 
3. Krishna Valley breed 
4. none of these 

Question 179:

Comensalism is the relationship in which
1. Both the partners are benefited by living together
2. Only one partner is benefited at the expense of the other
3. One partner is benefited and the other remains unaffected
4. None is harmed or benefited

Question 180:

Mitral valve in mammalian heart is situated between-

(1) Pulmonary vein and left auricle

(2) Left atrium and left ventricle

(3) Right atrium and right ventricle

(4) None of these