Question 1:

Two coherent light beams of intensities I and 4I are super posed. The maximum and minimum possible intensities in the resulting beam are:

1) 3I and I
2) 9I and I
3) 9I and 5I
4) 5I and I

Question 2:

A small ball of density ρ is immersed in a liquid of density (σ>ρ)(σ>ρ) to a depth hh and released. The height above the surface of water up to which the ball will jump, is:

1) $$\left ( \dfrac{\rho }{\sigma }-1 \right )h$$
2) $$\left ( \dfrac{\rho }{\sigma }+1 \right )h$$
3) $$\left ( \dfrac{\sigma }{\rho }-1 \right )h$$
4) $$\left ( \dfrac{\sigma }{\rho }+1 \right )h$$

Question 3:

Two soap bubbles A and B are kept in a closed chamber where the air is maintained at pressure 8N/m². The radii of bubbles A and B are 2 cm and 4 cm, respectively. Surface tension of the soap-water used to make bubbles is 0.04 N/m. Find the ratio nB/nA, where nA and nB are the number of moles of air in bubbles Aand B, respectively. [Neglect the effect of gravity.]

1) 2
2) 4
3) 6
4) 8

Question 4:

 The lens of a slide projector has a focal length of cm. A slide of 12.6 cm to the left of the lens forms the object for the lens. The screen should be placed:

(1) 25 cm to the left of the lens.

(2) 25 cm to the right of the lens.

(3) 250 cm to the left of the lens.

(4). 250 cm to the right of the lens

Question 5:

The image formed in a plane mirror is
 
 (1) real and the same size as the object
 (2) real and nearly the same size as the object
 (3) virtual and the same size as the object
 (4) virtual and the half the size of the object

Question 6:

Two oscillators are started simultaneously in same phase. After 50 oscillations of one, they get out of phase by π, that is half oscillation. The percentage difference of frequencies of the two oscillators is nearest to:

1) 2%
2) 1%
3) 0.5%
4) 0.25%

Question 7:

A block rest on a horizontal table which is executing SHM in the horizontal with an amplitude aa if the coefficient of friction is μ, then the block just start to slip when the frequency of oscillation is

1) $$\dfrac{1}{2\pi} \sqrt{\dfrac{\mu g}{a}}$$
2) $$2\pi \sqrt{\dfrac{a}{\mu g}}$$
3) $$\dfrac{1}{2\pi} \sqrt{\dfrac{a}{\mu g}}$$
4) $$\sqrt{\dfrac{a}{\mu g}}$$

Question 8:

 A 10 m long potentiometer wire is connected to a battery having a steady voltage. A Leclanche cell is balanced at 4 m length of the wire. If the length is kept the same, but its cross-section is doubled, the null point will be obtained at:

(1) 8 m

(2) 4m

(3) 2m

(4) none

Question 9:

 Of which the velocity is equal to light velocity :

(1) cathode ray
(2) X-rays
(3) positive ray
(4) all

Question 10:

A magnet of magnetic moment M is lying in a magnetic field of induction B. W1 is the work done in turning it from 0^o to 60^o and W₂ is the work done in turning it from 30^o to 90^o.Then

1) W₂ =W_1/2
2) W₂ = 2 W_1^?
3) W₂ = W₁
4) W₂ = √3W1

Question 11:

In terms of Rydberg constant R, the shortest wavelength in Balmer series of hydrogen atom spectrum will have wavelength:

(1) 3/2 R
(2) 9/4 R
(3) 1/R
(4) 4/R

Question 12:

A parallel plate capacitor of capacitance C is charged and disconnected from the battery. The energy stored in it is E. If a dielectric slab of dielectric constant 6 is inserted between the plates of the capacitor then energy and capacitance will become :

1) 6E, 6C

2) E, C

3) $$\dfrac {E}{6},6C$$

4) E, 6C

Question 13:

A steady current flows in a metallic conductor of non-uniform cross-section. The quantity/quantities constant along the length of the conductor is/are.

1) current, electric field, and drift speed
2) drift speed only
3) current and drift speed
4) current only

Question 14:

A proton when accelerated through a potential difference of  V volt has a wavelength λ associated with it. An α - particle in order to have the same wavelength λ must be accelerated through a p.d. of

1) V/8 volt
2) V/4 volt
3) V volt
4) 2V volt

Question 15:

A source of 220V is applied in an A.C. circuit. The value of resistance is 220Ω. Frequency & inductance are 50 Hz and 0.7 H, then wattless current is 

1) 0.5amp
2) 0.7amp
3) 1.0amp
4) none

Question 16:

The electric field in a region of space is given by E^→ = E_oî + 2E_oj^ E where Eo=100N/C. The flux of this field through a circular surface of radius 0.02 m parallel to the Y-Z plane is nearly :

1) 0.125Nm²/C
2) 0.02Nm²/C
3)  0.005Nm²/C
4) 3.14Nm²/C

Question 17:

Two charges q1 and q2, are separated by a distance r and apply a force F to each other. If both charges are doubled and the distance between them is also doubled, find out the new force between them ?

1) $$\dfrac{1}{2}F$$
2) $$\dfrac{1}{3}F$$
3)$$F$$
4) $$8F$$

Question 18:

Radius of the Earth were increased by a factor of 3 and its mass remained the same, then the acceleration due to gravity on the Earth would
 
 1) reduce by a factor of 3
 2) reduce by a factor of 9
 3) increase by a factor of 3
 4) increase by a factor of 9

Question 19:

A projectile is fired into the air and 12.6 seconds later hits the ground. With what speed was the projectile fired into the air?

 1) 97.5 m/s
 2) 14.6 m/s
 3) 61.7 m/s
 4) 38.6 m/s

Question 20:

3 mole of gas ''X"  and 2 moles of gas "Y" enters from end "P" and "Q" of the cylinder respectively. The cylinder has the area of cross section , shown as under 
The length of the cylinder is 150cm. The gas "X" intermixes with gas "Y" at the point . If the molecular weight of the gases X and Y is 20 and 80 respectively, then what will be the distance of point A from Q?

1) 75 cm
2) 50 cm
3) 37.5
4) 90 cm

Question 21:

A body of mass 2 kg moving on a horizontal surface with an initial velocity of 4 m/sec comes to rest after 2 sec. If one wants to keep this body moving on the same surface with a velocity of 4 m/sec, the force required is    
1)    8 N        2)    4 N  3)    Zero    4)    2 N

Question 22:

Relative permeability of iron is 5500. Its magnetic susceptibility is:

 1) 5201

 2) 5200 ´ 10^-2

3) 5499

4) 5200 ´ 10²

Question 23:

A 6000 kg rocket is set for vertical firing. The exhaust speed is 900 m//s. To give an upward acceleration of 20 m/s² the amount of gas ejected per second to supply the needed thrust is (Take g=10m/s²).

1) 225 kgs⁻¹
2) 200 kgs⁻¹
3) 275 kgs⁻¹
4) 100 kgs⁻¹

Question 24:

A pan with a set of weights is attached to a light spring. The period of vertical oscillation is 0.5s. When some additional weights are put in pan, then the period of oscillations increases by 0.1s. The extension caused by the additional weight is

1) 5.5cm
2) 3.8cm
3) 2.7cm
4) 1.3cm

Question 25:

In a screw gauge, the pitch of the screw is 0.5 mm and the number of circular scale divisions is 50, then the least count is __________ mm.

1) 0.05
2) 0.01
3) 0.5
4) 0.025

Question 26:

A cube of aluminum has side length 0.10 m. It is dropped into a deep swimming pool of water with density 1.00 x 10³ kg/m³ . The cube comes gently to rest at the bottom of the pool. If the density of the aluminum is 2.7 x 10³  kg/m3 , the magnitude of the buoyant force acting on the aluminum is:

1) 26.6 N
2) 9.8 N
3) 2.7 N
4) 1.0 N

Question 27:

The magnification of an object placed in front of a convex lens of focal length 20 cm is is +2. To obtain a magnification of -2, The object has to be moved a distance equal to:

1) 10 cm
2) 20 cm
3) 30 cm
4) 40 cm

Question 28:

A gaseous mixture enclosed in a vessel of volume V consists of one mole of gas A with γ(=CP?/CV?)=5/3 and another gas B with γ=7/5 at a certain temperature T. The relative molar masses of the gas A and B are 4 and 32, respectively. The gases A and B do not react with each other and are assumed to be ideal. The gaseous mixture follows the equation PV19/13= constant, in adiabatic processes.
Compute the speed of sound in the gaseous mixture at T=300K.

1) v = 501m/s.

2) v = 401m/s.

3) v = 701m/s.

4) v = 801m/s.

Question 29:

In the following P-V diagram of an ideal gas, AB and CD are isothermal whereas BC and DA are adiabatic process. The value of V_B/V_C is

1) =V_A/V_D.

2) <V_A/V_D.

3) >V_A/V_D.

4) none.

Question 30:

When light passes from one medium to another, there is a change in:

(1) Wavelength and velocity
(2) Frequency, wavelength and velocity
(3) Frequency and velocity
(4) Frequency and wavelength.

Question 31:

Which of the following is correct ?

(1) Light and solid are both transverse waves.
(2) Coherent source of light passing through two slits causes interference.
(3) Interference of light is evidence for transverse character of light.
(4) Rainbow appears because of scattering of light.

Question 32:

An ideal massless spring S can be compressed one metre by a force of 100N. The same spring is placed at the bottom of a frictionless inclined plane inclination at 30° to horizontal. A block M of mass 10 kg is released from rest at the top of the incline and is brought to rest momentarily after compressing the spring 2 metre. What is the speed of the mass just before it reaches the spring 

1) √20 m/s    2) √30 m/s    3) √10 m/s  4) √40 m/s 

Question 33:

A force (3i + 4j) newton acts on a body and displaced it by (3i + 4j) meter. The work done by this force is

1) 5 J    2) 25 J    3) 10 J  4) 30 J  

Question 34:

An ideal inductor is in turn put across 220 V. 50 Hz and 220 V, 100 Hz supplies. The current flowing through it in the two cases will be then

1) equal
2) different
3) zero
4) infinite

Question 35:

As the electron in Bohr orbit of hydrogen atom passes from state n = 2 to n = 1, the kinetic energy K and the potential energy U change as:

(1) K four-fold, U two- fold
(2) K two-fold, U four-fold
(3) K two-fold, U also two-fold
(4) K four-fold, U also four-fold.

Question 36:

A circuit has a self-inductance of 1H and carries a current of 2A. To prevent sparking, when the circuit is switched off, a capacitor which can withstand 400V is used. The least capacitance of capacitor connected across the switch must be equal to

1) 50μF

2) 25μF

3) 100μF

4) 12.5μF

Question 37:

A galvanometer with a coil resistance of 100 Ω gives a full scale deflection when a current of 1 mA is passed through it. The resistance of the shunt needed in ohm to convert this galvanometer into an ammeter of range 10 A is nearly

1) 0.01
2) 0.001
3) 0.1
4) 0.099

Question 38:

A metal surface of work function 1.07 eV is irradiated with light of wavelength 332 nm. The retarding potential required to stop the escape of photo electron is 

1) 4.81eV
2) 3.74eV
3) 2.65eV
4) 1.07eV

Question 39:

A rod of 10cm length is moving perpendicular to uniform magnetic field of intensity 5×10⁻⁴Wb/m². If the acceleration of the rod is 5m/s² then the rate of increase of induced emf is

1) 2.5 × 10⁻⁴Vs⁻¹
2) 25 × 10⁻⁴Vs
3) 20 × 10⁻⁴Vs
4) 20 × 10⁻⁴Vs⁻¹

Question 40:

The electric field for an electromagnetic wave in free space is $$\vec{E}=\vec{i}30\cos(kz-5\times 10^8t)$$, where magnitude of $$\vec E$$ is in $$V/m$$. The magnitude of wave vector, $$k$$ is:

1) $$0.46$$ $$rad\ m^{-1}$$
2) $$3$$ $$rad\ m^{-1}$$
3) $$1.66$$ $$rad\ m^{-1}$$
4) $$0.83$$ $$rad\ m^{-1}$$

Question 41:

The distance to which an electron of a hydrogen atom is to be removed from the atom so that the force of electrostatic attraction is equal to six times the weight of the atom, will be :

[Take g=10 m/s² and number of atoms in 1 kg1 kg of monoatomic hydrogen is 66 x 10²⁶]

1) 1.2 cm

2) 4.8 cm

3) 2.4 cm

4) 3.6 cm

Question 42:

What is the minimum energy required to launch a satellite of mass m from the surface of a planet of mass M and radius R in a circular orbit at an altitude of 2R ? 

$$\begin{array}{1 1} (1)\;\large\frac{5GmM}{6R}\\ (2)\;\large\frac{2GmM}{3R} \\ (3)\;\large\frac{GmM}{2R}\\ (4)\;\large\frac{GmM}{3R}\end {array}$$

Question 43:

A car travels 90. meters due north in 15 seconds. Then the car turns around and travels 40. meters due south in 5.0 seconds. What is the magnitude of the average velocity of the car during this 20.-second interval?
 
 1) 2.5 m/s
 2) 5.0 m/s
 3) 6.5 m/s
 4) 7.0 m/s

Question 44:

 A block of mass m is placed on a wedge. The wedge can be accelerated in four manners marked as (1), (2), (3) and (4) as shown. If the normal reactions in situation (1), (2), (3) and (4) are N₁ ,N₂ ,N₃ and N₄ respectively and acceleration with which the block slides down relative to the wedge in situations are b1, b2 , b3 and b4  respectively then: 

A)N3 > N1 > N2 > N4     B)b2 > b3 > b4 > b1   C) b2 > b3 > b1 > b4    4D) N4 > N3 > N1 > N2  

1) AB 2) CD 3) AC 4) ABC 

Question 45:

At the mid-point along the length of a long solenoid, the magnetic field is equal to x, If the length of the solenoid is doubled and the current is reduced to half, the field at the new mid-point will be nearest to:

(1) x/2
(2) x/4
(3) x
(4) 2x

Question 46:

Starting with 100 mm (Hg) pressure of SO₂Cl₂ in a closed container, the following equilibrium is set up at some temperature:
SO₂Cl_2(g) ? SO_2(g) + Cl_2(g). If mole fraction of SO₂Cl₂ at equilibrium is 1/3, K_p for the reaction is:

1) 60 mm
2) 50 mm
3) 120 mm
4) 25 mm

Question 47:

The maximum number of isomers (including stereoisomers) that are possible on monochlorination of the following compound, is


1) 4
2) 7
3) 6
4) 8

Question 48:

Which of the following compounds, shows ionic, covalent and coordination bonds?

1) NaCl
2) HCl
3) CuSO4. 5H₂O
4) CaSO4 5H₂O

Question 49:

If the half-life of an isotope X is 10 years, its decay constant is

1)  0.00692 Yr ^-1

2)  0.06932 Yr ^-1

3)  0.6932 Yr ^-1

4)  6.932 Yr ^-1

Question 50:

Specific volume of cylindrical virus particle is 6.02 × 10^-2 cc/gm whose radius and length are 7 Å and 10 Å respectively. If N_A= 6.02 ×10²³, find molecular weight of virus.
1) 15.4 kg/mol
2) 1.54 × 10⁴ kg/mol
3) 3.08 × 10⁴ kg/mol
4) 3.08 × 10³ kg/mol

Question 51:

The most convenient method to remove a phenolic group from a compound is to

 1. reduce it using Tin and HCl.
 2. heat it strongly with Copper
 3. reduce it strongly with SnCl2.
 4. disfill it with Zn dust

Question 52:

Which of the following will form when calcium acetate is distilled?

1)  Formaldehyde

2)  Ethanal

3)  Propanal

4)  Acetone

Question 53:

An ion with 5 protons, 6 neutrons, and a charge of 3+ has an atomic number of
 
 1. 5
 2. 6
 3. 8
 4. 11

Question 54:

What is the mass number of an atom which contains 28 protons, 28 electrons, and 34 neutrons?
 
 1. 28
 2. 56
 3. 62
 4. 90

Question 55:

The relative stability of the different oxidation state is an example of

1) redox potential
2) disproportionation
3) inert pair effect
4) electron-affinity

Question 56:

Diborane is a Lewis acid forming addition compound B₂H₆2NH₃ with NH₃, a Lewis base. This

1) is ionic and exists as [BH₂(NH₃)₂]⁺ and [BH₄]^- ions

2) on heating, is converted into borazine, B₃N₃H₆ (called inorganic benzene)

3) Both (a) and (b) are correct

4)  None of the above is correct

Question 57:

Statement 1: In the titration of Na₂CO₃ with HclHcl using methyl orange indicator, the volume required at the equivalence point is twice that of the acid required using phenolphthalein indicator
Statement 2: Two moles of HCl are required for the complete neutralization of one mole of Na₂CO₃ 

1)Statement -1 is true; Statement -2 is true ; Statement -2 is a correct explanation for Statement -1
2)Statement -1 is true; Statement -2 is true; Statement -2 is not a correct explanation for Statement -1 
3)Statement -1 is true , Statement -2 is false.
4)Statement -1 is false , Statement -2 is true

Question 58:

The volume of gases H₂, CH₄, CO₂ and NH₃ adsorbed by 1g of charcoal at 288K are in the order:

1) H₂  >CH₄ > CO₂ > NH₃
2) CH₂ > CO₂ > NH₃ > H₂
3) CO₂ >  NH₃ > H₂ > CH₂
4) NH₃  > CO₂ > CH₄  > H₂

Question 59:

The van't hoff factor for 0.1 molal Ba(NO₃)₂ solution is 2.74. Its degree of dissociation is

1) 0.74
2) 0.91
3) 0.87
4) 1.0

Question 60:

The ratio among most probable velocity, mean velocity and root mean square velocity is given by:

1) 1: 2: 3

2) 1: √2?: √3?

3) √2?: √3?: √8/π?

4) √2?: √8/π?: √3?

Question 61:

Monoclinic sulphur is an example of monoclinic crystal system. What are the characteristics of the crystal system?

1) a ≠b≠c,α=β=γ=90^o
2) a≠b≠c,α=γ=90^o,β≠90^o
3) a≠b≠c,α≠β≠γ≠90^o
4) a=b≠c,α=β=γ=90^o???????

Question 62:

50 mL of sample of hard water gave good lather with 6mL of standard soap solution (1 mL soap solutions = 1 mg CaCO_3?). If the hardness is only due to Mg(HCO₃?)₂?, the weight of milk of lime required to remove the hardness completely from 100 kg of that sample of water is:

1) 17.8 g
2) 8.9 g
3) 178 g
4) 89 g

Question 63:

In which of the following pair oxidation number of Fe is same:

1) K₃Fe(CN)₆,Fe₂O₃
2) Fe(CN)₅,Fe₂O₃
3) Fe₂O₃,FeO
4) Fe₂(SO₄)₃,K₄Fe(C)₆

Question 64:

The stability of the following alkali metal chlorides follows the order

1) LiCl > KCl > NaCl > CsCl
2) CsCl > KCl > NaCl > LiCl
3)NaCl > KCl > LiCl > CsCl
4)KCl > CsCl > NaCl > LiCl

Question 65:

Order of reactivity of halogen acids towards an alcohol is:

1) HCl > HBr > HI
2) HBr > HI > HCl
3) HI > HBr > HCl
4) HI > HCl > HBr

Question 66:

In the experiment for determining the percentage of water absorbed by raisins, we do the final weighing of the raisins after keeping them dipped in water for about one hour. For the accuracy of the result, the extra water from the surface of the soaked raisins is removed by :

1) rubbing with cotton cloth

2) hot air blower

3) dry cotton wool

4) filter paper

Question 67:

A solution contains a mixture of Ag⁺ (0.1M) and Hg₂²⁺ (0.1M) which are to be separated by selective precipitation. Calculate the maximum concentration of iodide ion at which one of them gets precipitated almost completely. What percentage of that metal ion is precipitated?
 K_sp (AgI) = 8.5  10^–17

K_sp (Hg₂I₂) = 2.5  10^–26 

1) 90.83%
2) 97.83%
3) 89.93%
4) 99.83%

Question 68:

0.5 moles of BaCl₂ is mixed with 0.2 moles of (NH₄)₃PO₄. Reactant present in excess (with extra number of moles of that reactant) is :

1) BaCl₂, 0.3mol
2) (NH₄)₃PO₄, 0.2mol
3) (NH₄)₃PO₄, 0.1mol
4) BaCl₂, 0.2mol

Question 69:

 Which of the following do not give glyoxal on ozonolysis followed by reaction with Zn and H₂O?

1) Benzene
2) HC=CH
3) Toluene
4) Ethene

Question 70:

In context with the industrial preparation of hydrogen from water gas (CO +H₂), which of the following is the correct statement?

1) H₂ is removed through occlusion with Pd
2) CO is oxidised to CO₂ with steam in the presence of a catalyst followed by absorption of CO₂ in alkali
3) CO and H₂ are fractionally separated using differences in their densities
4) CO is removed by absorption in aqueous Cu₂C₁₂ solution

Question 71:

The major role of fluorspar (CaF₂)which is added in small quantities in the electrolytic reduction of alumina dissolved in fused cryolite (Na₃AIF₆) is :

1) as a catalyst
2) to make the fused mixture very conducting
3) to increase the temperature of the melt
4) to decrease the rate of oxidation of carbon at the anode

Question 72:

X on treatment with sodium hydroxide followed by the addition of silver nitrate gives white precipitate at room temp, which are soluble in NH₄OH. X can be

1)  Vinyl chloride

2)  Benzyl chloride

3)  Ethyl bromide

4)  Chloro benzene

Question 73:

The disease caused by excess fluoride in water is:

1) paralysis

2) lung cancer

3) skeletal fluorosis

4) dental caries

Question 74:

Chalcopyrite is an ore of :

1) gallium 
2) copper
3) calcium
4) magnesium

Question 75:

The ionic radius of ₅₇La³⁺  is 1.06 A. Which one of the following given values will be closest to the ionic radius of ₇₁Lu³⁺?

1) 1.06 A
2) 1.56 A
3) 0.85 A
4) 1.35 A

Question 76:

On the basis of information available from the reaction
(4/3)Al + O₂ → (2/3)Al₂O₃, ΔG = -827 kJmol^-1
of O₂ the minimum emf required to carry out an electrolysis of Al₂O₃ is [ F=96500 C mol-1]

1) 2.14 V
2) 4.28 V
3) 6.42 V
4) 8.56 V

Question 77:

The electronic spectrum of $$[Ni(H_2O)_6]^{++}$$ shows a band at $$ 8500\,cm^{-1}$$ due to d-d transition. $$[Ph_4As]_2[NiCl_4]$$ will have such a transition in $$cm^{-1}$$ at:

1) 8500
2) 3778
3) 4250
4) 850

Question 78:

The solubility of silver bromide in hypo solution is due to the formation of

1)  [Ag(S₂O₃)] ^-

2)  [Ag(S₂O₃)₂] ^-3

3)  Ag₂S₂O

4)  Ag₂SO₃

Question 79:

Which type of dyes are not used to dye nylon and polyester fibres?

1) Vat dyes
2) Basic dyes
3) Disperse dyes
4) Insoluble azo dyes

Question 80:

Which of the following is correctly matched?

1) C - C bond length --- >0.077nm
2) Ionic radius of Na+ ---> 0.136 nm
3) C - Cl bond length --- >0.176 nm
4) Ionic radius of F- --- >0.095 nm

Question 81:

The rate of forward reaction is two times that of the reverse reaction at a given temperature and identical concentration. K is

1) 0.5
2) 1.5
3) 2.5
4) 2

Question 82:

Two radioactive isotopes A and B of atomic mass X and Y are mixed in equal amount by mass. After 20 days, their mass ratio is found to be 1:4. Half life of 'A' is 1 day. What will be the half life of B?.

1) 1.11 day
2) 0.6237 day
3) $$0.11\dfrac { X }{ Y } $$ day
4) $$1.11\dfrac { Y }{ X } $$ day

Question 83:

The most stable free radical among the following is

1) C₆H₅CH₂
2) C₆H₅CHCH₃
3) CH₃CH₂
4) CH₃CHCH₃

Question 84:

What type of hybridization take place in the N atom of NH₃?

1) sp²
2) sp³
3) dsp²
4) sp

Question 85:

Which is not true about acetophenone?

1) Reacts to form 2,4-dinitrophenyl hydrazone
2) reacts with Tollen's reagent to form silver mirror
3) Racts with I₂/NaOH to form iodoform
4) On oxidation with alkaline KMnO₄ followed by hydrolysis give benzoic acid

Question 86:

Oxygen contains 90% O¹⁶ and 10% O¹⁸ Its atomic mass is:

1) 16.2
2) 17.4
3) 17.
4) 16.5.

Question 87:

Which of the following statements is wrong about the following reaction? 

1) $$\displaystyle BBr_{3}$$ plays a role similar to the H in HI by forming a complex with the ether
2) The liberated $$\displaystyle Br^{\circleddash }$$ attacks Et, displacing $$\displaystyle PhOBBr_{2},$$ which is ultimately hydrolysed to give the products.
3) The products are $$\displaystyle PhOH+EtBr+H_{3}BO_{3}.$$
4) The products are $$\displaystyle PhBr+EtOH+H_{3}BO_{3}.$$

Question 88:

For obtaining 2-butanone from acetyl chloride, which of the following reagent can be employed?

1)  H₂Pd/BaSO₄

2)  Reaction with (C₂H₅)₂Cd in the presence of dry ether

3)  Grignard, reagent

4)  Reaction with HI

Question 89:

Cl₂O, Br₂O, I₂O have positive value of ? G (free energy) indicating that

1) these oxides are stable
2) these oxides are unstable and changes to X₂ and O₂
3) these disproportionate into X^- and XO^-
4) these oxides can form interhalogen compounds

Question 90:

The reaction of Cl₂ with X gives bleaching powder. X is

1) CaO

2) Ca(OH)₂

3) Ca(OCl)₂

4) Ca(ClO₃ )₂

Question 91:

Some mono carpic perennials are

 1) tamarind, agare, bamboo
 2) mango and tamarind
 3) agave and bamboo
 4) mustard, turnip and agare

Question 92:

Which of the following is not the monocotyledon feature?

 1) Vascular bundles are closed
 2) No secondary growth
 3) Trimerous flowers
 4) Odd sepal is posterior in position

Question 93:

Which of the following is not the part of gynoecium?

 1) Ovary
 2) Style
 3) stigma
 4) Filament

Question 94:

Which is the first anterior flesh lobe in annelids that is lip-like projection, but does not include the mouth?

1) Prostomium
2) Peristomium
3) Setae
4) Clitellum

Question 95:

Animals devoid of mouth and anus among the following is

1) Sponges
2) Coelenterates
3) Platyheminthes
4) Nemathelminthes

Question 96:

(1)The sum total of all chemical reactions occurring in our body is metabolism 
(2) Metabolic reactions cannot be demonstrated outside the body in cell free systems Regarding 1 and 2:

1) Both 1and 2 are incorrect
2) 1 is correct but 2 is incorrect
3) Both 1and 2 are correct
4) 1 is incorrect but 2 is correct

Question 97:

Regarding Mycoplasma choose the incorrect statement:

1) smallest living cells known
2) many are pathogenic in animals
3) cannot survive without oxygen
4) completely lack a cell wall

Question 98:

Which one of these does not require external water for fertilisation?

1) Fern
2) Algae
3) Gymnosperms
4) Bryophytes

Question 99:

In pteridophytes, phloem is without

1) Sieve cells
2) Sieve tubes
3) Companion cells
4) Both 2 and 3

Question 100:

Which of the following pair is wrongly matched about the taxonomic arrangement of cat?

1)    Scientific name – Felis domestica.
2)    Family – Felidae.
3)    Order – Mammalia.
4)    Phylum – Chordata.

Question 101:

Fill in the blanks:
(i) The term taxonomy was given by ..........
(ii) Binomial nomenclature was proposed by ...........
(iii) The term taxon was used for the first time by ..........
(iv) The smallest unit of classification is known as .......

1)    (i) – Linnaeus, (ii) – Mayr, (iii) – John Ray, (iv) – Family.
2)    (i) – John Ray, (ii) – Aristotle, (iii) – Darwin, (iv) – Species.
3)    (i) – De condole, (ii) – Linnaeus, (iii) – Mayr, (iv) – Species.
4)    (i) – Aristotle, (ii) – John Ray, (iii) – Mayr, (iv) – Family.

Question 102:

Which one of the following organisms is scientifically correctly named, correctly printed according to the International Rules of Nomenclature and correctly described?

1) Musca domestica – The common house lizard, a reptile

2) Plasmodium falciparum – A protozoan pathogen causing the most serious type of malaria

3) Felis tigris – The Indian tiger, well protected in Gir forests

4) E.coli – Full name Entamoeba coli, a commonly occuring bacterium in human intestine

Question 103:

 Maize can be propagated only by human agency because the

1) seed coat needs hard scraping
2) seeds are bound to the cob
3) seed is too tough for animals to feed on it
4) seed is too heavy for wind dispersal

Question 104:

Primary medullary rays are organized during secondary thickening in

1) dicot roots
2) dicot stems
3) woody monocot stems
4) none of the above

Question 105:

Pick the correct match for their scientific names.

1) I- B, II- A, III- C, IV- D

2) I- B, II- D, III- A, IV- C

3) I- A, II- B, III- C, IV- D

4) I- B, II- A, III- D, IV- C

Question 106:

Retia mirabilia specially in thoracic region are extensively developed in

1) Artiodactyla

2) Perrisodactyla

3) Cetacea

4) All of the above

Question 107:

VAM is

1) Symbiotic bacteria
2) Saprophytic bacteria
3) Saprophytic fungi
4) Symbiotic fungi

Question 108:

Convergent reticulate venation is seen in

 1) Zizyphus
 2) mango
 3) Canna
 4) Castor

Question 109:

In which plant is bifoliate leaf seen?

 1) Clitoria
 2) lablab
 3) Crotalaria
 4) Zornia

Question 110:

The plant which has only ligulate  florets

 1) Vernonia
 2) Lanaea
 3) Helainthus
 4) Echinus

Question 111:

Which group of plant have embryo but not vascular tissue?

1) Cyanophyta
2) Tracheophyta
3) Bryophyta
4) Chlorophyta

Question 112:

Select the correct statements from the following.
I. Endosperm is generally triploid in angiosperms.
II. All angiosperms have monosporic and endosporic embryo sac.
III. Angiosperms are characterised by double-fertilization.
IV. All angiosperms show-indirect pollination and siphonogamy.

1) I, II and III
2) II, III and IV
3) I, III and IV
4) I, II, III and IV

Question 113:

Calyptra develops from

1) Venter wall of archegonium

2) Outgrowth of gametophyte

3) Neck wall of archegonium

4) Paraphysis of the archegonial branch

Question 114:

Protonema is the stage in the life cycle of

1) Cycas

2) Funaria

3) Selaginella

4) Mucor

Question 115:

The pituitary glands posterior lobe produces two hormones
1. Vasopressin and oxytocin
2. Cortisone and corticosterone
3. Progesterone and estradiol
4. Testosterone and androsterone

Question 116:

The eggs of birds and reptiles are :
1.Cleidoic and Megalecithal
2. Noncleidoic and Macrolecithal
3. Cleidoic and Alecithal
4. Noncleidoic and Microlecithal

Question 117:

In frog purely sensory nerves are
1. l and ll
2. ll and lll
3. l and lll
4. lll and lV

Question 118:

A neuro-motor apparatus is first of all found in
1. Paramecium
2. Hydra
3. Jelly fish
4. Ascaris

Question 119:

The tectorial membrane is found in the
1. Eye of frog
2. Eye of mammal
3. Ear of mammal
4. Tongue of frog

Question 120:

In some ferns the egg cell in the archegonium forms a sporophyte without fertilization. It is
1. Apogamy
2. Apospory
3. Autogamy
4. Porthenogenesis

Question 121:

The antherozoids of Dryopteris is
1. multiciliate
2. uniciliate
3. biciliate
4. aciliate

Question 122:

When a normal woman (cc) maries colour blind man (c-) what would be the fate of their grand son?
 1) All of them have normal vision
 2) 50% of them have normal vision and 50% of them have colour blindness
 3) All of them are colour blind
 4) 1/4 of them have normal vision and 3/4 of them are colour blind.

Question 123:

Which of the following are not mesodermal in origin ?
1. muscle, cartilage bone
2. bone marrow, blood lymphoid tissue
3. blood vessels, genital ducts ,kidneys
4. thymus, trachea, bladder

Question 124:

Sunken stomata are characteristic of
1. hydrophytes
2. xerophytes
3. mesophytes
4. all of these

Question 125:

Vexillary corolla is found exclusively in the family
1. Compositae
2. Papilionaceae
3. Caesalpinaceae
4. Graminae

Question 126:

The condition of androecium in the Malvaceae is
1. Diadelphous
2. Didynamous
3. Syngenesious
4. Monadelphous

Question 127:

Essential oils are those which are
1. Used in soap manufacture
2. Used in perfumes
3. Essential for plant producing them
4. Essential for human kind

Question 128:

The element that helps in transport of electrons from water in photosynthesis
Molybdenum
Zinc
Chlorine
Boron

Question 129:

Which of the element is essential for life of animals and not for plants ?
Calcium
Iodine
Phosphorus
Potassium

Question 130:

The most important centre for the formation of lymph is
Liver
Spleen
Pancreas
Kidney

Question 131:

Which of the following is a bacterial disease ?
Rabies
Measles
Small pox
Tuberculosis

Question 132:

Loss of one pair of homologous chromosomes from a diploid set is called
 1) Monosomy
 2) Trisomy
 3) Monoploidy
 4) Nullisomy

Question 133:

Aneuploidy Drosophila was noticed by
 1) Bridges
 2) Hugo Devries
 3) Mendal
 4) T.H. Morgan

Question 134:

Traits controlled by genes located on autosomes are said
1. Sex linked
2. Sex influenced
3. Sex limited
4. Genetic traits

Question 135:

In honey bees the pollen basket for storing the pollen is situated in
1. Mouth
2. Honey spoon
3. Tibia
4. Galae

Question 136:

DNA histone complex can be removed from chromosome by treatment with
1. 6M NACL+Mg(OH)2
2. 1M NaCI
3. Mg (OH)2
4. Non separable

Question 137:

Organisms which fix atmospheric nitrogen in the soil, are found among
1. Bacteria
2. Mosses
3. Soil fungi
4. Green algae

Question 138:

Honey contains :
1. Glucose and Fructose
2. Maltose only
3. Lactose only
4. Dextrose and levulose

Question 139:

In man, the urea is mainly produced in
1. Liver
2. Kidneys
3. Gall blader
4. Spleen

Question 140:

The most important centre for the formation of lymph is
1. Liver
2. Spleen
3. Pancreas
4. Kidney

Question 141:

Plant growing on sea shores show characters of
1. Halophytes
2. Hydrophytes
3. Xerophytes
4. Mesophytes

Question 142:

The delimiting outer membrane absent in
1. Mitochondria
2. Nucleoli
3. Lysosomes
4. Plastids

Question 143:

The entry of water from the soil up to xylem elements of roots is because of
1. Gradient of suction pressure
2. Turgor pressure
3. Degree of imbibition
4. Ion concentration in water

Question 144:

The term neuston refers to
1. floating forms
2. bottom dwellers
3. surface swimmers
4. anchored forms

Question 145:

Plants depending on other organisms for nutrition are
1. Autophytes
2. Saprophytes
3. Parasites
4. Epiphytes

Question 146:

Formation of fat (lipogenesis) begins in the body when
1. Blood sugar level is constant
2. Glucose is converted into glycogen
3. When liver and muscles cannot store any more glycogen
4. When glucose combines with glycerol

Question 147:

The Mast cell are found in
1. Adipose tissue
2. Yellow fibrous tissue
3. White fibrous tissue
4. Areolar tissue

Question 148:

The Entamoeba histolytic is a
1. Blood parasite in mosquito
2. Intestinal parasite in man
3. Free-living in water
4. Malarial parasite

Question 149:

Prop roots are
1.primary roots
2.adventitious roots
3.branch roots
4.tap roots

Question 150:

Enzymes for glycolysis are present in
1. Mitochondria
2. Nucleus
3. Chloroplast
4. Ribosomes

Question 151:

In epiphytic roots, Velamen is found:
1. Outside exdermis
2. Outside endodermis
3. Inside exodermis
4. Inside endodermis

Question 152:

The eggs of birds and reptiles are :
1. Cleidoic and Megalecithal
2. Noncleidoic and Macrolecithal
3. Cleidoic and Alecithal
4. Noncleidoic and Microlecithal

Question 153:

Extremities of long bones have :
1. hyaline cartilage
2. fibrous cartilage
3. elastic cartilage
4. calcified cartilage

Question 154:

Gastric glands of man in stomach produces an enzyme
1. Insulin
2. Trypsin
3. Pepsin
4. Ptylin

Question 155:

Salk vaccine is used to prevent
1. Tuberculosis
2. Rabies
3. Tetanus
4. Polio

Question 156:

Molluscs having shell made up of two pieces and a plough shaped foot belongs to class
1. Cephalopoda
2. Pelecypoda
3. Gastropoda
4. Decapoda

Question 157:

Locomotion is not concerned with mating in
1. Cockroach
2. Earthworm
3. House fly
4. Hydra

Question 158:

Amount of O2 normally carried by 100 ml of pure blood, is
1. 40 ml
2. 20 ml
3. 10 ml
4. 30 ml

Question 159:

Connecting link between glycolysis and Krebs cycle is/before entering Krebs cycle pyruvate is changed to
1. Oxaloacetrate
2. PEP
3. Pyruvate
4. Acetyl CoA

Question 160:

Without the following corpuseles, blood clotting is not possible :
1. Erythrocytes
2. Thrombocytes
3. Plasmocytes
4. Leucocytes

Question 161:

Biologists who study the sequence of organisms in the fossil record are

(1) Systematists

(2) Taxonomists

(3) Paleobiologists

(4) None of the above

Question 162:

To tolerate water stress, plants in deserts develop

(1) Long root system which reaches to the water level

(2) No stomatal activity

(3) Both (1) and (2)

(4) Stems which are modified into leaf-type

Question 163:

Crossing over is an exchange of genetic material between nonsister chromatids of a bivalent during

(1) Meiosis I

(2) Meiosis II

(3) Mitosis

(4) All of the above

Question 164:

Which of the following plants is/are partial root parasite?

(1) Raffesia

(2) Monotropa

(3) Both (1) and (2)

(4) Santalum album

Question 165:

During what phase of meiosis do tetrads form?

(1) Prophase I

(2) Anaphase I

(3) Prophase II

(4) Anaphase.II

Question 166:

Which of the following is absent' within a nucleotide'!

(1) Sugar

(2) Phosphate

(3) Nitrogenous base

(4)ATP

Question 167:

The common type of propagules which help in the vegetative propagation of lichens are

(1) lridia and soridia

(2) lridia and phylidia

(3) Phylidia and blastidia

(4) Soridia and blastidia

Question 168:

A gymnosperm is a plant which
1. bears flowers
2. produces seeds in cones
3. does not produce seeds enclosed in ovary
4. exhibits no vascular tissues

Question 169:

Multiple epidermis on dorsal and ventral side of the leaf is found in
1. Zea mays
2. Ficus benghalensis
3. Mangifera indica
4. Nerium oleander

Question 170:

Growth in plants at root apex and shoot apex takes place by
1. basal meristem
2. apical meristem
3. intercalary meristem
4. lateral meristem

Question 171:

Which of the following bears winged fruits
1. Oroxylum
2. Cinchona
3. Discorea
4. Moringa

Question 172:

lIiocaecal valve in rabbit is present in-

(1)Duodenum

(2) Sacculus rotundus

(3) Colon

(4) None of these

Question 173:

Pila (snail) Limux slug), Patella etc. belongs to class
1. Polypalacophora
2. Scaphopoda
3. Gastropoda
4. Cephalopoda

Question 174:

Paraplegia refers to paralysis of
1. both the legs
2. both upper limbs
3. the entire body
4. only one limb

Question 175:

The free swimming Larva of Hydra is known as
1. Planaria Larva
2. Redia Larva
3. Planula Larva
4. Amphiblastula Larva

Question 176:

There are four layers in the epidermis of mammalian skin. Which one of them is capable of showing mitotic division ?
1. Stratum lucidum
2. Stratum germinativum
3. Stratum corneum
4. Stratum granulosum

Question 177:

"Ascaris lumbricoides" produces some Toxins in the body of the host which disturbs
1. Basal Metablic rate
2. Fat metabolism
3. Protein metabolism
4. Carbohydrate metabolism

Question 178:

Which disease in children is caused by intensive use of nitrate fertiliser ?
1. Jaundice
2. Methemoglobinemia
3,. Mumps
4. Septicemia

Question 179:

How many autosomes will be seen secondary spermatocyte
1. 46
2. 44
3. 23
4. 22

Question 180:

Male gonads in Hydra are found
1. in lower half of the body
2. near the hypostome
3. any where on the body
4. exactly in the middle